Why does Matthew include Women in his Genealogy? | Part 1

This video examines Tamar, Rahab, Bersheba and Ruth.
I dedicate the majority of the time to exploring the story of Tamar (Genesis 38) since she is most likely the most unfamiliar.

[OliverNoraM]

In line with Matthew's representation of Father of Faith, he included 3 heathen women who were more rightous than their male counterparts and hoped for a inheretance with them because of the promice to Abraham and are counted as rightous because of faith, forgiven of their deeds.

[rodenranch]

Ruth wasnt a Israelite, she was a moabite. Jews teach you get your jewishness from your mother and your tribe from your father. But, judah married a caaninite, joseph married an egyptian, and moses married an Ethiopian.

[Sigma_Sight]

Tamar wasn’t a prostitute, and rahab the harlot at the time of Joshua is different then rahab with boaz...

[poppyozark]

The reason Tamar is mentioned is because the Messiah was to come from the line of Judah and judah's sons were killed because they were messing around with the Providence of God. God then used Tamar to trip Judah to continue this line.

[josevega]

Wow! you definitely got my attention at the end of this video. but you know what, this is starting to make sense when i think about the whole story about joseph not putting marry away and later when jesus is accused by the pharesees of coming from an illegimate birth. And i just have to say Wow again when you said matthew is providing not four, but FIVE women in the genealogy of Jesus.

[asherjason]

With regards to Ruth screwing it up, it think she doesn't. Because Ruth was indeed involved in a sexual scandal that leads to marriage. This is evident in Ruth 3:7-8 :-
"And when Boaz had eaten and drunk, and his heart was merry, he went to lie down at the end of the heap of corn: and she (Ruth) came softly, and UNCOVERED HIS FEET, and laid her down.
And it came to pass at midnight, that the man was afraid, and turned himself: and, behold, a WOMAN LAY AT HIS FEET."

In the Ancient Near East "Feet" was an euphemism to "Genitals" as elsewhere in the bible like, Ezekiel 16:25 "...you have made your beauty to be abhorred, and has opened your FEET to every one that passed by, and multiplied your whoredoms."
And also the word מַרְגְּלֹתָ֖ 'Margeloth' is used in the account of Ruth than the regular word for Feet that is רַגְלֶ 'Regel'

My guess is that just as the gospel authors show that Jesus is better than every male in his genealogy that failed, Mary is better than every female in her genealogy that failed (cause she's both pure virgin and jew)

Please check out the idea that "feet" was an euphemism to "Genitals" in JSTOR and tell me what you think about it.

[donaldwatson]

The women should have been included in all versions of the genealogy anyway.. You can't have any genealogy of anyone without women... The whole idea of that is completely absurd... ESPECIALLY when you consider the fact that in the particular case of Jesus, he has NO BIOLOGICAL MALE FATHER... Jesus only has a human mother... So why would the female line be left out??