A Greek lesson of John 1:1-3; John’s Testimony to the Deity of Christ

Spent our time in the AOMax studio today diving into the issues surrounding the proper translation and understanding of John’s testimony to Jesus in his Gospel, prompted by the exchange between Anthony Rogers and Brandon Tatum on Instagram.

For James White's political content, click here:

[Berean_with_a_BTh]

It seems this video has attracted the attention of some JW Trolls.

So let's start with John 1:1-3, the JW goto passage for trying to prove Jesus isn't God:
_In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God; all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made._
The first thing to mote is that this passage alone totally destroys the JW claim that Jesus is a creation, since he has been with God since the very beginning.

Neither is Jesus some sort of demi-god. The third clause of John 1:1 in Greek reads καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος (kai theos ēn ho logos), literally meaning "and God was the Word".

JWs make much of the lack of the article ὁ (ho) before Θεὸς (theos) in the third clause of the Greek text, saying its absence means the Word was only "a god". But they are inconsistent: John 1:18 & 8:54, Romans 8:33 & 9:5 and 1 Corinthians 8:4 & 8:6, 2 Corinthians 1:3 & 5:19, Galatians 6:7, Ephesians 4:6, 1 Thessalonians 2:5, and Revelation 21:7 all lack the article ὁ (ho) before θεὸς (theos) with exactly the same accenting, but the New World Translation (NWT) has no trouble omitting the indefinite article there and translating θεὸς (theos) there as 'God'. 2 Corinthians 1:3 even has the exact same καὶ θεὸς (kai theos) wording as John 1:1 following ὁ πατὴρ τῶν οἰκτιρμῶν (ho patēr tōn oiktirmōn) - an unambiguous reference to God the Father! On the JW's translation 'principle', 2 Corinthians 1:3 in the NWT should be translated as:
_Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies, and a god of all comfort, _
thus differentiating between God as _the Father of mercies_ and Jesus Christ as _a god of all comfort, _ but they failed to do so. Oops!

In all, there are 282 instances of the anarthrous θεός (theos) in its various inflections in the Greek New Testament, but the NWT only translates it as 'a god', 'god', 'gods' or 'godly' 16 times, demonstrating a mere 5.7% (1/17.6) commitment to their translation 'principle'.

The next paragraph is for nerds 
Unlike English, Greek Grammar lacks the indefinite article and the Greek article functions differently from the English definite article. Plus the Greek article isn't needed for a noun to be definite. Nouns lacking the article are anarthrous. In Greek Grammar, θεός (theos) in the third clause of John 1:1 is what is known as a pre-verbal anarthrous nominative predicate noun. That is, the noun precedes a verb, lacks the article, and is the subject of and qualifies the object of the clause. In the New Testament, this form almost always denotes a quality. What this tells us is that the Word is qualitatively God. Put another way, the Word is distinct from but has the same nature or essence as God. There are very few cases in the New Testament where this form is indefinite. Thus, the onus is those arguing for the indefinite sense to explain why it has to be so here. Had John inserted the article before θεός (theos), that would mean the Word is identical with God (Unitarianism).

The NWT even goes so far as to have Mark 12:27 say "He is not a God of the dead, but of the living" and to have Luke 20:38 say "he is not a God of the dead, but of the living" - note the quite unnecessary _a_ before God. Matthew 22:32 creates a problem for them, though, because that verse has the article - ὁ Θεὸς (ho theos) - which explains why the NWT translates the other two as 'a God' in spite of the lack of the article. The NWT translates Matthew 22:32 as "He is the God, not of the dead, but of the living".

Translating καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος (kai theos ēn ho logos) as "and the Word was a god", as in the NWT, is polytheistic - a stance the NWT's treatment of Matthew 22:33, Mark 22:27, and Luke 20:38 reinforces.

That Jesus is fully God (not just 'a god') is confirmed in:

*John 8:58*
_Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am."_
The Judeans' response in John 8:58 demonstrates that they fully understood the implications of what Jesus was saying.

*John 10:30*
_I and the Father are one_
The Greek adjective ἕν (hen), meaning 'one', being in the neuter - not the masculine εἶς (heis), which would say the Father and Son are one person - asserts unity of essence, not merely being in communion, or unity of will or of power. That this is the correct understanding is confirmed by the Judeans’ reaction at John 10:31-33. Jesus’ statement denies both Sabellianism (Unitarianism) and Arianism (JWs). The same sentiment is found in:

*John 17:11*
_Holy Father, keep them in thy name, which thou hast given me, that they may be one, even as we are one._
and
*John 17:22*
_The glory which thou hast given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one_
Note that there is no suggestion Christians will attain the same essence or nature as God but that, as God's sons, Christians will ultimately share the one essence or nature - as Christ's bride.

*John 20:28*
_Thomas answered him, "My Lord and my God!"_
Note that Jesus accepted Thomas' acclamation.

*Romans 9:5*
_to them (the Israelites) belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ, who is God over all, blessed for ever. Amen._

*Philippians 2:5-11*
_Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form he humbled himself and became obedient unto death, even death on a cross. Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name which is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father._

*Colossians 1:15-19*
_He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or authorities - all things were created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. He is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning, the first-born from the dead, that in everything he might be pre-eminent. For in him all the fulness of God was pleased to dwell_

*Titus **2:11**-13*
_For the grace of God has appeared for the salvation of all men, training us to renounce irreligion and worldly passions, and to live sober, upright, and godly lives in this world, awaiting our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ_

*Hebrews 1:2-8*
_in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. He reflects the glory of God and bears the very stamp of his nature, upholding the universe by his word of power. When he had made purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the majesty on high, having become as much superior to angels as the name he has obtained is more excellent than theirs. For to what angel did God ever say, "Thou art my Son, today I have begotten thee"? Or again, "I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son"? And again, when he brings the first-born into the world, he says, "Let all God's angels worship him." Of the angels he says, "Who makes his angels winds, and his servants flames of fire." But of the Son he says, "Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever, the righteous scepter is the scepter of thy kingdom"_

*2 Peter 1:1*
_Simeon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours in the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ_

*1 John 5:20*
_And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, to know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life._

Additionally, for JWs to argue there are two gods in John 1:1 makes them polytheists. In which case they have a real problem with their failure to truly worship Jesus in light of:

*John 5:22-23*
_The Father judges no one, but has given all judgment to the Son, that all may honor the Son, even as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him._
Note how the Son is to be given the same honor as the Father and the Father isn't honored by those who refuse to do so. 

The NWT, as might be expected, mistranslates most of the above Christological passages for the sake of their dogma and contrary to Greek grammar and/or context.


Now watch the JW Trolls respond with their obsfucations, specious nonsense, and sophistry...

[doomerquiet]

I used to be kjv only, but He is what got me interested in greek and in church history, years later i find myself still fascinated with church history (always grab the first hand documents when you can) and now understanding his greek explanations (as i’ve been learning greek.

Keep watching this guy and his debates if you would like to grow in knowledge of the church without a roman catholic bias, ryan reeves is great as well if you’re looking for a consecutive lecture format.

[GabrielMartinez-sudi]

As a seminary student taking his 2nd semester of biblical Greek, I am so appreciative of anytime Dr. White takes the time to do this. It helps bring together everything I'm learning.

[yasaaley]

Common sense will tell us that a person's word is something caused by the person. If caused then the Word is not eternal. Dear brethren, if the Word is not caused by the Father then it is not of the Father. Let us pay heed to what the Lord said about himself and about his relationship with the Father.

[wendelburlat]

In Greek, omitting the article can change the meaning or nuance of a sentence. Greek, like many languages, uses articles (the equivalent of "the" in English) to specify nouns. Here are a few ways the meaning can shift:

1. Generic vs. Specific: Without the article, a noun can become more generic or abstract. For example:

With article: "Το βιβλίο" (To vivlio) - "The book"
Without article: "Βιβλίο" (Vivlio) - "A book" or simply "book" in a general sense
2. Indefinite vs. Definite: Greek doesn't have a separate indefinite article like "a" or "an" in English, but the absence of the definite article often implies an indefinite meaning.

With article: "Το παιδί" (To paidi) - "The child"
Without article: "Παιδί" (Paidi) - "A child" or "child" in general
3. Subject Emphasis: In some cases, omitting the article can place more emphasis on the subject or the essence of the noun.

With article: "Ο άνθρωπος είναι θνητός" (O anthropos einai thnitos) - "The man is mortal"
Without article: "Άνθρωπος είναι θνητός" (Anthropos einai thnitos) - "Man is mortal" (emphasizing mankind in general)
Understanding the specific context in which the article is omitted is crucial, as it can subtly change the meaning or focus of the sentence.


John 1:1 in the New Testament is a key verse often discussed in terms of its grammatical structure, particularly the use of articles in Greek. The verse reads:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

In Greek, it is written as:

"Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος."

Let's break down the relevant parts where the article is involved:

"Ἐν ἀρχῇ" (En archē) - "In the beginning":

The phrase does not have an article before "ἀρχῇ" (beginning), which is common in Greek when referring to abstract concepts or to emphasize the generality of the term.
"ὁ Λόγος" (ho Logos) - "the Word":

"ὁ" is the definite article, meaning "the". This specifies "the Word" rather than "a word".
"πρὸς τὸν Θεόν" (pros ton Theon) - "with God":

"τὸν" is the definite article, specifying "the God".
"καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος" (kai Theos ēn ho Logos) - "and the Word was God":

Here, "Θεὸς" (Theos) does not have an article before it. The lack of an article before "Θεὸς" has been a significant point of discussion. Without the article, "Θεὸς" is qualitative, meaning it describes the nature or essence of "the Word" rather than identifying "the Word" as a specific entity called "God". Thus, the phrase can be understood as "the Word was divine" or "the Word was of the same nature as God."
In summary, the use of the definite article in Greek is critical for understanding specificity and definiteness. In John 1:1, the absence of the article before "Θεὸς" while it is present before "Λόγος" and "Θεόν" indicates a qualitative sense, emphasizing the divine nature of "the Word" rather than equating "the Word" as a specific entity named "God." This nuanced grammatical structure has been central to theological interpretations of the nature of Christ in Christian doctrine.

[MichaelTheophilus]

Deut 6.4-6, Mark 12.28-32, John 17.3, John 20.17, Rom 15.6, Rom 16.27, I Cor 8.6, II Cor 11.31, I Tim 2.5, Rev 3.2, Rev 3.12, and many other scriptures.

[thelthrythquezada]

I started at about 8am making notes in my Logos Bible software (if you dodn't have one of those I recommend it, but its not cheap) here it is 10:37 am and I just now finished the lesson...

[theservantsresource]

Does anybody know if there's a video where Dr. White addresses the Scottish court case (1952?) involving Frederick Franz of the Watchtower cult, and what that case was about? Apparently Mr. Franz, whom his excommunicated nephew Raymond Franz claimed was one of the New World Translation's "translators, " demonstrated in court that he did not know either biblical Greek or Hebrew. I would like to know more about this particular court case, and what the JW's were doing in Scotland at the time.

[scriptureexamined]

Man, I could listen all day to Uncle Jimmy illuminating Biblical Greek. Who agrees with me that we need a series of him teaching Greek online?

[terryambrose]

Insert “wide-eyed” emoji as Dr. White takes 30 minutes to only partially dissect 1 verse. Amazing to watch.

[anissueofursincerity]

In the beginning of what? What began?
and God WAS the Word. That is past tense.
Why would the text not say O Logos IS God?
If everything God is the Word is, and the Father is also what God is, the Word would also be the Father?

[JoshuaCookLibertyIsRising]

What secular Greek text gives us an example of this? Does anybody know?

[kennethlewis]

This was incredible! Thank you so much for doing this in this kind of format Dr. White! Super easy to follow along and easy to grasp what you were saying.

[franciscafazzo]

Add a beginning there's no definite article before arche

[theoutpouring]

Do more exegesis — this is helping people

[darealgomaking]

Ton Theon! That was funny Dr white! I love your debate with mr ventilation. I have been engaging with INC members and I go to your debate whenever I need a refresher and go to verses. May God bless you keep feeding us.

[joshhigdon]

I saw this yesterday and was mesmerized! I wish I could sit under Dr. White for a few years to learn this. The church needs koine Greek scholars until Christ's return!

[normanmcdermid]

Why have they translated ''logos'' as ''word'', when the word logos actually means ''a thought''.

[GizmoFromPizmo]

I think the speaker meant to say, "Verse 14" and not verse 18, Verse 14 says, "And the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us..."

[naakaiidinee]

If there is a Theon and a Theos where is the third god or what is the third god called. Because Jesus says the word I speak is not mine it’s my father’s who sent me. And he also says you don’t believe in me but the father who sent me. Hmmm think about it.