What was the Sin of Sodom and Gomorrah ? | GotQuestions.org

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What was the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah? Why did God destroy Sodom and Gomorrah? And what does the Sodom and Gomorrah story tell us about Christianity and Homosexuality and Homosexuality in the Bible. In this video, Pastor Nelson with Bible Munch looks at Genesis 18, Genesis 19 along with other related passages to discover what the Sodom and Gomorrah sin was and what we can learn from the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah.

*** Curious about Bible Munch? Go check them out!

*** Recent Bible Munch Videos:
Don't Follow Your Heart - Here's a Really Good Reason Why.

4 Reasons why you Should NOT Read the Bible. ((FUNNY))

Billy Graham’s Most Powerful Quotes for America | In light of Billy Graham’s Funeral

*** Source Article:

*** Related Got Questions Articles:
What does the Bible say about homosexuality?

Why did Lot offer up his daughters to be gang raped? Why did God allow Lot's daughters to later have sex with their father?

Why did Abraham bargain with God in regard to Sodom and Gomorrah (Genesis 18)?

*** Recommend Book:
Genesis: NIV Application Commentary [NIVAC]
By: John H. Walton

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I Finally understand ✨

This is Really a Touchy topic which we as people and Believers we run away from these days. may Good Help us

umothebeliever
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Rebellion to the utterly wicked world is obedience to God

bernardjackson
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I find it interesting how some people (mainly pro LGBTQ) continue to try to say it has nothing to do with homosexuality when it clearly does and trying to change various meanings in the Bible to try and make it as if homosexuality isn't even a sin, which it clearly is.

Btw, I'm not religious and believe everyone can live how they choose (so long as it doesn't harm others).

phil
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The word Sodomy is a man-made term from the understanding of Genesis 19 being about male homosexuality, though many males "sodomize" their wives or women as well, if you are going to use that term. I lived in Israel for 10 years for both the Church of England and the Tel- Aviv Hilton as a chef, and I had to learn Hebrew to do my job efficiently. This also helped me to read the Bible in it's original language, such as with the story of Sodom (S'dom) in Genesis 19.

I have often noticed how English translators would choose a certain word when often Hebrew was wider in meaning to have had a choice of more than one word to get the fullest understanding, as Hebrew uses a lot of "root words" in that the same consonants can appear in a related word that would give a set of words a backround logical link that would not apply in English.

For instance the word sun is SHEMESH, meaning to SERVE the earth with light. Other Biblical words are linked by the 3-letter root consonants SHIN-MEM-SHIM (Sh-M-Sh), such as SHAMASH for "deacon" meaning "servant, " or one who "serves" in the Church, yet no one would connect these in English, so some Hebrew sentences make deeper sense with this knowledge, such as "His name will be called 'Jesus' for He will save His people from their sins." This makes no sense whatsoever to an English reader, but in the Hebrew it uses the words, "His Name will be called YESHUA for He will YOSHEA His people from their sins, " and so the reader connects the Saviour's Name (which means "salvation" anyway) to the word "save" in the sentence.

Hebrew names have meaning, such as SHIMSHON ("Samson") having the same root as SHEMESH & SHAMASH from the root meaning to SERVE, but also ostensibly "shining one" with the close connection to the word for the sun ("shemesh"). Furthermore the polite word for "toilet" or "bathroom" in Hebrew is BEIT SHIMUSH, with the same Sh-M-Sh root, meaning "House of Services." Now in English you would never connect the sun with a deacon, with Samson and a toilet! Yet, they all link together beautifully and sensibly in the Hebrew language.

Hebrew grammar is also very different to English and it is rather a 'chauvinistic' language always using the likes of male plurals to include females too. For instance BOY = YELED, GIRL = YELDAH, CHILDREN (BOYS & GIRLS) = YELEDIM (MALE PLURAL), and GIRLS ONLY (FEMALE PLURAL) = YELEDOT. If there are 99 boys and 1 girl it is still male plural YELEDIM, and if it is 100 boys it is male plural YELEDIM. If it is 100 girls it is YELEDOT female plural, but if it is 99 girls and 1 boy it becomes YELEDIM, male plural. This is used throughout the Bible, such as with "sons of God, " "men of Galilee, " "men of Jerusalem" etc when talking about mixed sex groups of people.

Even the translated "Children of Israel" is actually the male plural "sons of Israel" in Hebrew (B'NEI ISRAEL), not "children" (YELEDIM), but the translators wanted to avoid "sons" only.

The same is used in Genesis 19 where Lot's house in vs 4 is surrounded by "men" of the city. The word for "men" here (and "men" can be "geverim" or "b'nei adam") is the more general term "anashim" from the root word "anush" meaning "human, " not solely men. With the male plurals of Hebrew the "men" has the possibility of including females, as throughout the Bible, and the use of the "human" linked root renders this word to mean more clearly PEOPLE, which I know is an everyday word for people in modern Israel today ("ANASHIM"). English readers read "men" and assume homosexuality. But the same verse also uses the English word PEOPLE "from every quarter" and not "men" which backs up the clear meaning of "anashim" being "people, " a mixed sex crowd, bent on sexually molesting the angelic visitors in a frenzied orgy of lust, where the city had embraced every form of depravity, such as the likes of adultery, fornication, orgies, incest, paedolphilia, voyeurism, bestiality and every kind of perversion imaginable that the city was slated for destruction even BEFORE this incident (Gen 18, God said to Abraham), and homosexuality and lesbianism would also have been present within the city/cities.

The word "PEOPLE" used in this second instance (in the same verse) is the SINGULAR word for people ("AM") such as in "AM ISRAEL" ("People of Israel"), whereas ANASHIM is the plural usage for a crowd of individuals. Both are used and both represent a mixed sex crowd.

Thus it makes more sense for Lot to offer his 2 daughters rather than to a group of male homosexuals! Also if it were only this incident that enraged God then Gomorrah should have been spared, but both were so depraved they had previously been slated for destruction, whether this incident had occurred or not, as the angels had come to rescue Lot, but the incident is just a proof of the unbridled passions, sins & behaviour that had overtaken the "people" of the city.

Therefore "Sodomy" is a man-made term based on a limited understanding of the grammar in the text, and from which many preachers wax eloquent about homosexuality (only) and "Sodomites." The Bible does condemn homosexuality clearly in both Old and New Testaments, so this is not some kind of revisionism to deny what is elsewhere proscribed in Scripture, but it is correcting an historical error that has caused many man-made doctrines to be believed.

The Biblical meaning of a "Sodomite" is simply a citizen of Sodom, just as a "Jerusalemite" is a citizen of Jerusalem. Many will not accept any of the above due to denominational teachings.

scented-leafpelargonium
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I find it interesting that pride is stated first in the list of the sins of Sodom, in Ezekiel 16:49, followed by; fullness of bread, abundance of idleness, and neglect of the poor.

Proverbs 30:8, 9 says, "...feed me with food convenient for me: Lest I be full, and deny you, and say, Who is the LORD?"

Human experience demonstrates that when we have an abundance of things above our needs we become prideful, ungrateful, turn from the fear of God, and indulge ourselves in all manner of carnal pleasures until we are sotted with them, having lost all perspective of what it means to be content, and even the meaning of life itself.

It's also important to observe that though the unnatural sexual act (later to be known as sodomy) is not stated in the Ezekiel list, it was a product of their 'pride'.
I think pride was the root cause of many of their sins, as it has always been with the rest of mankind, including us today.

Also, their pride seems to be a result of having "fulness of bread", but it shouldn't have been an inevitable consequence.
For, instead of being thankful to God for their abundance of provisions, and distributing the excess to the poor and needy, they glutted themselves, and then further degenerated into unbridled lust, resulting in sexual perversion, or "filthy behaviour" as stated by the apostle Peter (2Peter 2:7).

I believe sexual sin is an inevitable consequence of pride though, and it is most salient that the modern 'Pride' movement is characterised, amongst other things, by apparent complete sexual license.

Lukeydookee
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I agree with you 100%, Thank you for sharing... God be with you. 🙏🙏🙏

tinaludlow
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They were having Diddy parties before Diddy was conceived

Donmarcusiano
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Sin Is Judged By Our Holy God and He Has His Wrath On Detestable Things and Let It Be An Example and A Guide To Stay Away and Ask The Holy Spirit For His Leadership and Guidance and Pray To Jesus Christ For Forgiveness ❤

miclee
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Wasn't just sexual immorality. It was also a lack of respect and manners.

jcampbell
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Concise. Excellent teaching and presentation. Thank you for a comprehensive look at the topic.

maryloulongenbaugh
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Well what does Sodomy mean ? There’s your answer

deuteronomy
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The sin of Sodom and Gamorrah is more than one. It's not just sin, but SINS.

jokerjapitana
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I don’t! I don’t run away from it. I won’t disrespect them especially if they are my coworkers because they could get you fired and ruin your career. But I will say and tell them, I don’t agree with you and your lifestyle” and I wouldn’t want any of my family members to be part of that lifestyle. That’s how I believe, that’s how I feel about it and that is my opinion on it. So we must agree to disagree, you do you. Go ahead and knock yourself out in your lifestyle. If you ever need my help for something? I’ll be here and try to help you as best I can.

isaiasacuna
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• It’s, as; a; clinched; victory; Lot, and, his; angelic, escapism. It’s, just; as; a; sodomy, to, Gomorrah’s; that; we; all; have, restoration. “Thou shalt see the reward of the wicked”; is; a; line, from; Psalm 91:8.
- Olaitan Kareem Akanmu.

VocalistToExpectancy
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Good attempt at explaining this but here are some questions for you. If God destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah MAINLY for homosexuality ( according to you that is ), why did he not do this to the tribe of BENJAMIN who CLEARLY had among them those who lived the same way and the tribe of BENJAMIN knew this and obviously had NO PROBLEM with these men Judges 19. Not only did they not have a problem with these men who practiced homosexuality, they fought against their other brethren ( the other tribes of Israel) to protect them Judges 20. The tribe of Benjamin were practically destroyed ONLY AFTER they REFUSED to give up the men who essentially KILLED a man's wife by raping her whole night, for judgement. Why the inconsistency? Why did not God destroyed Jerusalem in similar fashion if as he says in Ezekiel 16 : 46 -52, she (Jerusalem) was more corrupted than Sodom and Samaria, were more abominable than either of them to the point that GOD HIMSELF deemed them to be more righteous than Jerusalem? WHY?

aliciamcdonald
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*_The sin of Sodom and Gomorrah was very similar to the Sin which prompted Noah's Flood._* Genesis 6 is very unclear about the reasons for the Flood -- merely "wickedness, violence and corruption of flesh." These jeopardized God's Way upon the Earth.

We have to ask, *_"What exactly is 'God's Way' upon the Earth?"_* And how did man jeopardize that Way?

Corruption of Flesh is perhaps one of our better clues. And when we use the Holy Spirit to derive a biblical timeline, we find, in science, the *_Identity_* of the "daughters of men" who were the TARGET of the Flood.
😎♥✝🇺🇸💯
REFERENCES:
*_The Bible's Hidden Wisdom: God's Reason for Noah's Flood_*
*_The Logical Christian_*

RodMartinJr
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The outcry against Sodom was so grievous.. not the sin of Sodom was so grievous but the outcry against Sodom... why were the neighboring cities' outcrying against Sodom so grievous?. How was Sodom.oppressing those cities that their outcry was so grievous?

ibelieveibelieve
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Who was the leader of those cities? Confused because some people think it was a homosexual King. In the film I watched it was a bisexual Queen. Queen Bera. I also wonder why most people are against homosexual men but not lesbians. Surely god would be against both.

independentpuppy
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REFORMED THEOLOGY: (California)

This message brought to you by the one above all (✝️) and The Golden State!
👊😒🙄😬🥺😫😣🇺🇲

bloodmooncomix
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Sodom and Gomorrah (and all of the Cities of the Plains) are interesting and misunderstood. The Bible is not very specific about what set S&G's sins as much greater than the rest of the tribes and cities at that time. It must be far greater than just homosexuality or homosexual gang rape, as we know other tribes, cities and civilizations existed at this time, and they were also practicing this, but the Cities of the Plain were far worse than any other in God's sight and He chose to destroy them. We must look at this in terms ancient customs and worldviews, not according to modern ideals, so we can begin to understand the what that evil beyond all evil was, and we just don't have that knowledge anymore, not definitively. According to Leviticus, Moses instructs the Hebrews what is toevah, which is to be against practicing acts that the non-Hebrew world does. So we know homosexuality existed outside of S&G. And we know that this level of depravity will not exist to such a degree until the end times. We know their sexual perversions were completely sick, that they were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. They were haughty and did detestable things, GREATER than any other place on earth; their outcry being so loud that God decided to destroy them forever.

paulbobier