Did Jesus claim to be God in John 8:58?

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“… like God saying my name is Nunya, ” may be the funniest thing I’ve seen in a bit. Thank you for that!

williamginocchio
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Since I'm knee high to a duck, the Catholic Church had always told me that Yahweh meant, "I am" in Hebrew. I guess I shouldn't be surprised how ignorant those are at the "center of Christs' teachings".

dirtydish
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The Tetragrammaton is the essential four-letter Name of God, which was uttered only by the Jewish priests at certain points of their service in the Holy Temple of Jerusalem. Beyond this prescribed usage one is not allowed to pronounce this Name as it is written, thus also known as "the ineffable Name." In sacred service, as public Torah-readings, it is substituted by the Name Ado-nai, and in vernacular speech and writing by the Hebrew term HaShem (lit. "the Name"), which is also the general non-sacred substitution for the term "God."

hrvatskinoahid
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The deadpan delivery when he said Nunya XD god damn you're too much man haha

IntoDeathandTheBuddahMatrix
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Hi Dan. I'd appreciate if you would discuss the accuracy of Jesus’ words in the Bible since it appears that many years passed before they were documented. I would have trouble accurately writing down a word for word conversation I had yesterday! :)

ronlahusen
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Heh, I remember reading a book a long time ago that claimed that "I Am That I Am", was basically the ancient Israelite version of "Mind Your Own Business"! Supposedly, Moses (who is described elsewhere as knowing the secrets of Egyptian magic) asked the name of this supernatural entity as a possible means of gaining control over it, which God saw through...I've also heard that the letters of the Tetragrammaton may be derived from that phrase in some way, as tho it were an acronym?

HandofOmega
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The biggest problem with fundamentalists is that they just don’t understand the difference between what Jesus might have said, and what the gospel authors have him say

wingedlion
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“And when all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will be subjected to the one who subjected everything to him, so that God may be all in all.”
‭‭1 Corinthians‬ ‭15‬:‭28‬ ‭NET‬‬

The Bible says, also Jesus will be subjected to God, if He's God, He can not be subjected to himself, and it doesn't make sense.

May God lead us in the right direction in Jesus name, I prayed🙏❤️

STAYDIVINE
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We need the men of truth like you are. Thank you Dan

tasnim
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Hi Dan I am interested in the Bible but not sure if it’s necessary to read. From what I’ve gathered from my experiences with so many interpretations they all seem to be extrapolated takes on human psychology. How we define our subconscious by emotionally attaching to “I Am” followed by a phrase or feeling of who you believe you are. Seems like that’s pretty representative of the psychological substance of this series of books. But I’m not interested in the propaganda based books of the Bible that were published for the purpose of bringing hope to a specific people in a time.

joshuab
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You are amazing! I am grateful for you and your work.

SweetKel
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A more accurate translation is actually "I yam what I yam, " followed by two toots on a corncob pipe and skulling an entire can of spinach.

lnsflare
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The sentence is not just "I am", it's "Before Abraham was, I am", not merely a reference to God's name, it's simultaneously a claim to pre-existence. It cannot be merely taken as the author claiming Jesus is a God-bearer. The author claims Jesus is the pre-existent one who in the scriptures revealed himself to both Abraham and Moses.

MusicalRaichu
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I am what i am to me, means he is everything

Whosoever
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"I am He" so gods basically saying "I'm Him"

raegan_
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In John 8:58, the King James Version has Jesus saying "Before Abraham was, I AM", with the phrase "I AM" in capital letters as if he were using a title. But the Greek expression in this verse does not use capital letters and is very different from the Hebrew expression found in Exodus 3:14 where God says, according to most modern Bibles, "I will be what I will be." In John 8:58, Jesus was not claiming a title belonging to God. He was not claiming to be Jehovah God. A common Greek expression (ego eimi) is being used in the historical present to emphasize that Jesus existed before Abraham. Some Bibles correctly translate Jesus' words to proper English as "Before Abraham existed, I have been" or "I existed before Abraham was born."

jollyrancher
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This is a rather important topic within Abrahamic religion.

There was a pre-Israelite god of bedoins that was identified with YHW or YHWA that was not coordinated with a preexisting god, there was also the Eblaite (Cuneiform) IA which is associated with EA/Enki and at times conflated with El, though I think this was largely because Enlil had largely become a title of a power god and so many people might have seen Ea and Ilu no longer separate in reflection to the various power gods like Ishtar, Asshur and Marduk. The only site associated with Ea in the levant is Beth Lahmu, the house of the guardian of Enki in Yehudah. Right there we have a muddling of Yahu and Ea. There were legends of Enki sages who came from the region we would call Aravah and Aqaba. This would explain why there was a YH cult in the region the Egyptians encountered, but not Yahweh. The peoples of the region had a tendency to chimerize gods, for example Attar-Kemos. It seems likely that YH (wisdom) was chimerized with some power god and just called divine arms Wehu, YahuWehu, with the u evolving.
But the bible seems on concealing the historical identity of this god, his wife, his family. And so in exodus 6.3 it gives a blow off definition, but then goes on to conflate the gods of the patriarchs (whose names they are also not inately familar with) with Yahweh.

In doing this however the redactor/priestly source creates a problem, because by ill-defining god, he makes it posdible for others to broaden the definition of god to include concepts from other cultures. This problem is not strictly limited to Judaism. The Edomites had a different name for essential the same god, and gods name in the bible itself is variably used. Moreover, the same god was a god in Yemen and in parts of the nile, again with different theogeny.
So its broadly speaking a truth we dont know what Yahweh means in the original sense, there is a period of at least 300 years were Yahweh is being constructed in Arabia. But we can get a sense from the stories what gods are being 'Borrowed from' to create the narrative. These flood stories, the stories of the creation (both from the Enuma Elis and the stories of Nammu-mother of Enki), the touch stone prayers in Exodus that bring forth the water, etc that are a impressionist painting of Enki within the text. But thats only part, because the bible authors are painting also a story of the South, of volcanos, the nile, the eed/reed sea and of life of bedoin out in Aravah, Aqaba and Yemen. We see in these stories the reflection of some type of primitive beliefs based on active mountains and storms encounter of front ranges of plateaus.

Darisiabgal
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It ought to be translated "I will be", since it's the same verb used two verses earlier (when God tells Moses "I *will be* with you" in Exodus 3:12). The Hebrew "ehyeh" simply has no connection to the Greek "ego eimi".

legron
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I think by now it's safe to say that the message of Joshua holds up; Go too God. Do your best, treat others with kindness, and don't be treacherous Azzhat🤔💭

mickeydecurious
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Always informative! Hello from San Antonio-Southtown!

jimwyatt