Divine Foreknowledge and Human Freedom | Are They Compatible?

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If God foreknows that I will perform an action, then do I have the freedom not to? Many claim that God's foreknowledge removes the possibility to make free choices. In this video we will examine the argument from theological fatalism.

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To fix the modal scope fallacy at 6:28, couldn't you just change the syllogism to:

P1) IF God necessarily foreknows x (because He omnisciently knows all future events), THEN necessarily x will happen. (P1C1 necessity to P1C2 necessity)
P2) God necessarily foreknows x. (P1C1 necessity to P2 necessity)
P3) Therefore, necessarily x will happen. (P1C2 necessity to P3 necessity)

C=clause

IDK, I'm just a layman.

arthur
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Yes, yes, and yes. Right down to the necessary burrito, which sounds good right about now.

FOTAP
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You must eat the burrito tomorrow. If you don't then you made it such that God held a false belief about what you would do, and you can't make God wrong. Saying that you don't necessarily have to eat the burrito, (must I eat it? No), ie that you have the free will to refrain from it, simply begs the question. Then to get around the problem you simply redefine "fore"knowledge as not being knowlegde of the occurrence of an event held before it occurs. This is incoherent and special pleading.

a.j.hernandez