Deriving the formula for angle between two straight lines

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In this video , I showed how to obtain the formula for the angle between two lines using the slopes
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Get yourselves a girl who looks at you the same way Prime Newtons looks at his camera when there's an earthquake XD

mreverything
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Your lessons are so beautifully constructed and delivered. Great stuff! Please keep making them.
😊

johnroberts
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Some day I gotta meet you and thank for you for inpsiring my mathematical

Orillians
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I always liked this formula because if you look at it and try things like:
Limit as m1m2 approach -1, you will get 90 degrees which makes sense since one of the rules for perpendicularl lines is that m1m2 = -1. Also you can do a similar observation when m1 = m2 (parallel lines since same slope) you will get arctan(0) or 0, which also makes sense since the lines are parallel.

Jason-otjv
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Its called a math quake. It happens when chalk rubs harshly against the chalkboard when one gets too excited about doing math.

JSSTyger
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Your chalkboard handwriting is so pretty. I wish mine was that nice!

stvp
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i was just trying to derive the formula and this video came up couple of minutes later, though ur proof is easier to understand😂

AQIMGame
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You are so good at teaching. Keep it up!

jamal
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You are very good. Funny too and expressions entice your students. Well done, more please.

ena
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Ha, loved the cold open. Great video.

hvok
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gracias, por tu clara explicación paso a paso

chorobatestopografia
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Very interesting, never happened to see this formula inferred

lukaskamin
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Solution:



Since m describes the slope (m > 0) or dip (m < 0) per unit of x of the respective line, you can easily calculate the angle between that line and the x-axis with tan⁻¹(|m|).
So the angle between two lines is: (with m₁ ≥ m₂)
if m₁, m₂ > 0 then tan⁻¹(m₁) - tan⁻¹(m₂)
if m₁ > 0 > m₂ then tan⁻¹(m₁) + tan⁻¹(-m₂)
if 0 > m₁, m₂ then tan⁻¹(-m₂) - tan⁻¹(-m₁)

m.h.
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God wanted to make sure you know that we don’t live under Euclidean geometry 😂😂

jadenredd
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Orthogonal lines have m₂ = -1/m₁, hence denominator is zero, so we have arctangent of infinity/undefined. 😉
Line y = m₁x+b₁ is collinear with vector r₁=(1; m₁), second one — with r₂=(1; m₂).
Scalar product (r₁, r₂) = 1+m₁m₂ = |r₁||r₂|cos Θ
⇒ cos Θ = (1+m₁m₂)/(√[1²+m₁²]√[1²+m₂²])
⇒ Θ =

-wx--
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The two parallel lines to the first and passing through the origin have their respective equations: y=mx and y=m'x (y-intercept zero).

ahmedabdelkoui
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I was waiting for you to say "...take the magnitude of the earthquake, er tangent...".

lethalsub
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It's very smart and interesting! However, does it work when beta is equal to pi over two?

Moreover, I wonder how to justify to put the absolute value on the fraction.

Toto-cmux
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no way an earthquake 😭 what are the chances of recording that

llie
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Would it work to take the arctan(m1) = alpha and the arctan(m2) = gamma, then gamma - alpha = beta?

josephbaker