What Happened In The Intertestamental Period?

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A short answer related to God's "400-year silence" between the Old and New Testaments.
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was just wondering yesterday, why did Christ arrive at the time he did in a better environment....less wars means less hostility. Thanks sir.

bigericthewarriorforthegoo
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Wow. That's deep I need to read more

coryperkins
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Just like we are waiting for the fullness of time in the period of grace. He came and caught them sleeping.

bryanhk
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Interesting. New argument, the timing of Jesus coming was perfect for the spread of Christianity

josiahcruz
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So great vid but frank I hope you add this to your answer list for this question. The 400 silent years where layed our in the book of Daniel prophetically. I won’t explain it but I hope you’ll research it for yourself cause it’s the best explaination for the silent years.

badhombre
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I think Frank's reason for the timing of Christ are spot on, but as far as why God was silent, I think it was because His people had rejected all the prophets he sent to them which led up to that period of silence. God tried to turn them back to Him, said all he had to say, nothing left to be said.

Contending
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I think during the intertestamental period God wasn't silence, he had prophets to speak through just that during that time there was no prophet who was writing scriptures hence the silent period

nanaquame
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Book of Daniel covers some of that time...HeGoat was Alexander the Great.

jesuschristmyking
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Good question! Also, a clear & concise answer.

elbertsorrell
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@Cross Examined Hi Frank, would you comment on a video on Dr Michael Heisers work on the inner testamental work on the book of Enoch?

Dominick
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Imagine if the last of the people to experience God lived in the year 1600's and before.
That's too hard to make a comeback for humans but Jesus did it.
Calm before the Storm :)

sauravgupta
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There is no evidence for the notion that God "stayed silent" for 400 years.

godonlyone
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Correct answer, God wasn't silent the people just weren't listening.

Behold, the days come, saith the Lord God, that I will send a famine in the land, not a famine of bread, nor a thirst for water, but of hearing the words of the Lord :
Amos 8:11 KJV

Notice it says a famine "of hearing the words of the LORD" not a famine "of the words of the LORD"

lilchristuten
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Hellenization he mentions it I'm not sure if any of y'all are aware of the style of writing but I'm talking about is Hellenistic writing but that is the style that the New Testament was written in

SheikhN-bible-syndrome
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It’s called the Pleroma, which is translated into “fullness of time”

albertlangford
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god answer, but does that mean God waited for us humans to cultury appropriate all things needed..He truly is so patient

simonaivancic
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God was also "silent' from Joseph until the Exodus. The Bible gives us what is needed to be saved. There are of course other historical sources if we just want to learn about the intertestamental time period.

jop
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Was God waiting for the right time or is it just coincidence that Jesus appeared at a time when ideas were spreading around the Roman Empire so it gives the appearance that there was a plan?

adlanier
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2000 years since Christ walked earth this is considered the "church age" get ready for the prophetic tribulation soon

Nicoslast
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Where does it say in scripture that God will be silent?

TheMCAmigos