Computing the Fourier Series of EVEN or ODD Functions **full example**

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In this video we do a full example of computing out a Fourier Series for the case of a sawtooth wave. We get to exploit the fact that this is an odd function where f(-x)=-f(x)) as we can simplify considerably our computations of the Fourier Coefficients if the function is either even or odd.

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This is called the hand waving method for finding the solution.
I love how you get super excited about solving these simple equations. Your enthusiasm is contagious.

NothingMaster
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Thank God I found this man and was saved from the misery of my horrific teacher not explaining why the Sine in Bn goes to zero. grrr

lukecaetano
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Noting the wide range of maths topics you cover, you got to be the a know- all maths prof.
AMAZING. I am only an Accountant curious about Fourier series, and you have made it simple to grasp with the dot product analogy.
Cheers Prof.

ricardoraymond
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Thank you 🙏 for providing a deeper explanation 📚 of concepts instead of merely applying formulas directly, as some math instructors do on YouTube 🎥.

KarthiDreamr
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I wish I came upon this video a lot sooner. I finally understand why I should care about the evenness and oddness of the function: computation becomes a lot simpler, and for my purposes, it can make code run faster. Thank you Dr. Bazett

makutascarlet
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Sir, you truly are a great teacher. I aced my first test in Vector calculus, didn’t do so great on the next two. However, I watched all of your videos in the Vector calculus playlist and I aced it! You are amazing sir.

VictorAlfarochannel
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Fourier sequences have been coming up in my probability and data analysis courses. Awesome vid!

xxshogunflames
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I am a first year physics student and your videos on Fourier series save my life thank youuu<3

thwlis
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I'm on my third course of basically only using this guys playlists... How did people pass anything 100 yrs ago?

jebo
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Another great video, thank you! The summation at 9:00 for the sine terms should be n = 1 to infinity, rather than n = 0.

danielprager
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Dear Dr. Bazett,
Thank you for your informative video. I have a few questions however.
1. Is there a particular reason you did not substitute L for 2 at the end?
2. How do you, in general, find the value of L?
Thank you sir

eliotfan
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this was so easy to follow and understand. Now there's no chance i'll mess it up on my exam tomorrow :D

tristanblikman
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I think that you need to have it from 1 to infinity, because at n = 0, we will have division by 0, which is undefined.

pellumbmaraj
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Great explanation.👍
but one thing. I think summation should go from 1 to infinity. not from 0 to infinity. You can also put n=0 in that b(n) and check that it gives undefined.

peggi
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thank you for your clear and fun explanation. i aspire to be a math professor

avocadolover
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i'm currently failing my series and transforms class but maybe, just maybe i can do it with your help! i've watched this video atleast 10 times today and just finished working out a problem that would have been impossible for me this morning

melm
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That was great! You’re an awesome teacher.

michaelzumpano
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The first term of this Fourier series at 9:15 is divided by 0, I'm confused plzz explain 🙏🙏, bty awesome video thnk u professor

wakeawake
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Thank you❤❤❤
I think cos((pi)^n) = (-1)^n
Instead of (-1)^(n+1)

AbakwaPikin-vqhz
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Thanks again for this awesome series! Right at the end it should be 2 instead of L right?

dovidglass