Partial derivatives - Laplace equation

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Thank you mam nice explanation it is helpful & yours language is not understandable but l understanded it

ELavanya-uqzo
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Thanks very much for the vivid explanation

metcalf
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Wonderful✨😍 thank you mam. It's really helpful

anythingican
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1/(a ^ 2) ( partial^ 2 z partial x^ 2 )+ 1 b^ 2 ( partial^ 2 z partial y^ 2 ) values a ^ 2 * x ^ 2 + b ^ 2 * y ^ 2 - c ^ 2 * z ^ 2 = 0 then prove

khaleelmohamad