Proving weird Fermat's Last Theorem in just 2 minutes !

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Changing the exponents in Fermat's Last theorem creates a whole new interesting problem. Do you need to be Andrew Wiles to solve it ?

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#manim
#Wiles
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Oh, I think I had this question around 7 or 8 years ago on a math olympiad!

mychannel-teke
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Yeah very simple problem. Got it in my 4th grade math test last year.

chixenlegjo
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How does (x+1)*(x+1)^x become 2(x+1)^x at 1:37 ? Also, this is completely different problem than Fermat's Last theorem, isn't it?

tenebrae
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**This video is too short to fit the proof**

Phymacss
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Your assumption at the beginning is not clear. It doesn't explicitly state how n substitution by x, y, and z still holds for the original problem.

CarlBolton-rjyk
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What about x^y+y^x=z^z? And for x^y+y^z=x^z?

xn____
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Wrong again. This is the Beal conjecture. And just like I have proven the negation of Fermat's last theorem I have also provided a solution to this problem.
The key is to simply consider x, y, and z as exponents.

If we allow the integers A, B, C to represent the prime integers exponents 2, 3, 5, respectively and x, y, z to represent their integer powers 14, 4, 8, respectively then by the law of exponents [(14 x 2)+(4 x 3)=(5 x 8)]=[28+12=40]. And since A, B, and C are prime then they can have no common prime factor. Therefore the Beal conjecture is false.

Now. If you are saying that the base and exponent must have the same power then this is simply the Pythagorean theorem.

Therefore given the law of exponents
(3^3)+(4^4)=(5^5)
=(3x3) +(4x4)=(5x5)
=(3^2)+(4^2)=(5^2)
QED

williejohnson
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/from Ал-тай ДіЙ :/
Fermat's Great Theorem 1637 - 2016 !
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/Ал-тай ДіЙ/

Kysil.A.G