What is imputed righteousness?

When God counts someone righteous on the basis of faith, it’s not because of anything they’ve done. It’s because they’ve been covered by the righteousness of Christ. From one of our live Ask R.C. events, R.C. Sproul helps us understand the doctrine of imputation.

#AskLigonier

[yengsabio]

It's always great to see Dr. Sproul even now that he's no more! Thank you for this! #SoliDeoGloria

[gregthomas]

It will certainly be an enjoyable time meeting Bro. Sproul in the glory land. Thank you for continuing to post these morsels of mana for us!

[demhai]

Thank you Ligonier ministry. Please keep posting this 2-3 min compounded knowledge of R.C. and other Ligonier fellows.

[johns]

RC Sproul has been instrumental in my quest to come to Christ . I’m almost there ! ✌🏼

[brianhyde]

Righteousness: Imputed or Imparted?

For many years the greatest struggle I had as a SDA, was the question of whether I was “saved” based on an imputed righteousness, an imparted righteousness, or a combination of both.  Boy, if you only knew the time and effort and expense, I put into researching this issue!  And I see the debate continues to rage amongst Adventists to this day, and also among those who claim to be “Christian”. As a Full Preterist this is, of course, not even relevant, much less an issue. But if anyone is interested, I just want to share with you how this issue can be easily settled
historically, if one sticks to exactly what the Jewish Scripture actually
says. 

First, what is ‘righteousness’?  Strictly speaking, when the Jewish Scripture speaks in
terms of the ground of salvation and justification before God, it is the righteousness of God provided by God through His Son, Jesus Christ, and the basis of which He reconciled and justified the people of Israel to Himself (Rom 1:16-17, 3:21-26, 5:17-18, 10:4, 2Cor 5:19-21).

‘Righteousness’ in this sense, refers to the entire merit of Christ’s work in fulfilment of the Law on behalf of God’s Elect, Ancient Israel, where Christ was their Mediator and Surety. The Jewish Bible tells its audience plainly that “sinners” could only be saved, justified before God, based solely upon Christ’s righteousness imputed to them (Rom 5:18-21; 2Cor 5:21; Phil 3:7-10). ‘Imputed’ means that the merit of Christ’s work of mediation was legally charged to ("put to") their persons, so that
they were "saved", "justified". It was based on a righteousness they personally could not produce. It was a righteousness gifted them, even the righteousness of Christ their Substitute and Surety.

This is ‘salvation by grace!

The Jewish Bible knows no such term as ‘imparted righteousness’. When Adventists and Christians refer to this, they mean the work of the Spirit in the disciples of Christ that resulted in spiritual life (a ‘principle of life and godliness’), faith, repentance, love, humility, and all the graces of the Spirit. These, they claim, are imparted, infused, and
implanted, into the individual by way of the mind, will and affections. The fact is, however, that things, were moral qualities of character by virtue of your being with Christ, and as the fruit resulting from his righteousness imputed to you (Rom 8:32). Therefore, these graces of the Spirit did not form any part of the ground of salvation; did not merit justification before God. These were simply the fruit and effect of Christ’s ministry which was the only ground of salvation. First the root, then the fruit.

So, whilst it is true that in salvation there was the merit of a work imputed, moral qualities of character as such, were ‘fruit’. Again, Christ’s righteousness was imputed as the only ground of salvation; as the only merit that made the individual positionally qualified to stand in the Day of Judgment in AD 70. Only in this way did Jesus have the pre-eminence in all things. It was the work of God’s Spirit that brought the Elect to belief and a saving knowledge of Christ and his righteousness (Jn 6:29). This is why the Apostle John points his readers to and glorifies Jesus as the Son incarnate (Jn 16:13-14). Spiritual life, and all that it includes, was the outworking of the Spirit as the fruit and effect of Christ’s work for them. 

Now, Christ’s righteousness could not be imparted to an individual, because the merit of a work CAN NOT be imparted or infused. It can only be imputed, or legally charged to another’s account. It was the only way believers could be saved and remove all boasting in themselves.  Thus, the term ‘imparted righteousness’ is a
misnomer. It is yet another attempt at salvation by works!  I was glad when I was finally able to put that issue to rest.

During the transition period (AD 30- AD 70) the disciples were emulating
Christ. Faith, though it lay hold of the perfect righteousness of Christ, was
not yet "perfected". Love was not yet "perfected". Obedience was not yet "perfected". These were imputed with the righteousness of Christ by virtue of being “in Christ” as a corporate covenant identity. One was complete only in Christ.

God’s main purpose was to point the Jews to Christ and cause them to rest in Him alone as the one who satisfied God’s plan for saving them from old covenant sin, law and death. Again, this was Israel’s journey, not ours: it has nothing to do with us today.

[msairhead]

Justified/Counted righteous → Christ died for us, so that we might not be condemned but acquitted of all charges before a holy judge = biblical
Justified/Counted righteous → Being clothed by the righteousness of Christ, meaning his perfect (active) obedience = not biblical, but it sounds good and logical
This reformed teaching make the cross look smaller than it is, since Christ "just" died for the penalty of our sins, which apparently is not good enough for God to really be fully or truly justified.

[martinospitaletta]

What is imputed righteousness ? An erroneous teaching. logizo + dikaiosyne means "a behaviour is acknowledged as covenantal faithfulness" cf psalm 106, 30-31.
This meaning is also proven by the most recent scholarship about Second Temple Judaism, just do your own research. When Paul says pistis is acknowledged as covenantal faithfulness, he denotes a certain kind of behaviour towards Christ as faithfulness to the Abrahamic covenant. We should therefore translate pistis as allegiance. Allegiance to Christ, embodied trust in him, obedient faith in him - this and only this kind of faith is acknowledged as faithfulness to the covenant.
Obedience is necessary for your convictions to become allegiance or "pistis" in the sense of Paul.
If you are living in sin and rebellion you do not have pistis even if you have faith in the invented doctrine of imputed righteousness.

[eliaspap]

Still confusing too me, doesn’t explain much

[weobeyjesus]

So was Abraham covered in Christ's righteousness? No. Faith Alone is devil doctrine. That which is by grace is not of works, but grace can be of works.