How to normalize combinations of orthonormal wavefunctions - Real chemistry

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In this video you will be introduced to sets of wavefunctions that are "orthonormal." This means the wavefunctions are both normalized (the integrals of the same wavefunction = 1) and orthognal (the integrals of different wavefunctions = 0).

We use this property to easily normalize a linear combination of orthonormal wavefunctions. These linear combinations are also known as superposition of states.

It turns out that any set of solutions to the schrodinger equation for a given potential are orthogonal. This makes this an extremely useful property.

[mgonzlezpalacios]

I understood more in this video than 2 hours in my Quantum Chemistry class. Thank you so much :)

[probinkumar]

Sir love from india (assam)
Great teaching

[claudinemeinhardt]

Thank you! This made more sense than what I endured over a decade ago and now returning to school.

[jonathanflores]

Wish my professor had taught us orthogonal wavefunctions. This guy's way better :D

[ChemistryTutorAlex]

I'm beyond thankful for this video

[melindas]

Thank you so much, doing online learning because of covid and the way it was explained in the skript/book made no sense. Thank you! Now I understand how to do the exercices I need to do!

[muhammadsajid]

Thank you dear Sir.
Now I am in position to find the normalization constant very easily.

[aluelmalaakdeng]

This video was so helpful. Thank you so much!

[theteacher]

I am so grateful for your existence, you beautiful, beautiful soul.

[guledshire]

Dear Real Chem,

If the integral is with respect to x, i.e. it ends with "d/dx", then why do we not actually see any "x" variables as part of the answer to the integral? Did I miss something? Otherwise this was an excellent video as always, thank you!! :)

[arturopena]

why couldnt my physics prof explained like this and show it with a simple example? Thank you!!!! the key word is orthonormal....

[atakankara]

at 5:43 why we wrote φ^2 when we multiplying φ with φ* ? Is it the same thing? Also, thank u sm for the video you’re great!!!

[PlaqueBaka]

Is it that Psi1 times Psi2 (komplxk.) = integ.[ psi1(komplxk.) times psi2(komplxk.)] ?

[omarfarukh]

Sir, please explain to me why the quantum spin number is expressed as 1/2 and -1/2

[hanifajabaar]

I mean you are awesome because you sound like Seth rogan teaching me quantum mechanics

[omarfarukh]

SIR, MY QUESTION IS STILL NOT ANSWERED ?

[toanhien]

Thank you. I'm losing hope in my chemistry class.

[omarfarukh]

horrible writing even with electronic pen and pad