Parashah Points: Ha’azinu – What Does Death Teach us about Life? - 119 Ministries

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In this week’s Parashah Point on the Torah Portion titled, Ha’azinu, we see Moses is told that he is about to die. What does knowing that we are going to die teach us about how we should live? In other words, what does death teach us about life?

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Blessed Yom Kippur and have a Blessed Sukkot too!

wesleyogilvie
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I am blessed to have found this ministry. Truth is so hard to find these days.

dominicwalker
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Stop reading my thoughts! (jk) Death has been on my mind a lot lately. It's sobering when Sunday evenings come around, relaxing in the living room, TV is blaring, and all of a sudden I catch myself looking at the clock in the other room. The realization quickly sets in that this is another weekend that I'll never be able to experience again. Time gone. And Yes, the thought of how many I have left always follows.

Ecclesiastes is one of my favorite books. Taken in the right context and one will realize just how little time we really have left to learn the Will of God and implement it in our daily lives so that it's second nature. I have a lot to learn. In order for me to be the person that I believe God wants me to be, I have a lot to undo. A lot to let go of. With God's help I'll get there.

kerncountyrd
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What a fantastic teaching as we enter the close of this year's torah portions! I think this may be favorite one for the whole year!

brandonablack
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Take heart and keep the faith!!: Contemplating the reality of death and contending with thoughts of our own mortality is often difficult and painful. In light of the unprecedented world events that we witness unfolding on a daily basis, the thoughts and realities of death are thrust upon us. As Bible prophecy continues to be fulfilled, (seemingly at an accelerated rate), and as the "birth pains" continue to increase, remember there is hope...hope in YHWH's Kingdom. Instead of allowing the pursuits and challenges of this world to cause a "striving after the wind" (Ecclesiastes 1:14), '"seek first the Kingdom of YHWH and His righteousness" (Matthew 6:33). In His Kingdom, there will be immeasurable joy! Messiah says to His faithful ones to "take heart!" He has overcome the world. (John 16:33).

Matthew.
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Me gustaría que tuviera traducción al español he estudio las parashat y me es difícil

natyperalta
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Sad because your videos are good till you allow your self to judge

paullot
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At John 8:58 there is a verb γενέσθαι (=genesthai). This is a verb, and is derived from γίνομαι (=ginomai), which has a range of meanings, such as to be, to do, to make, to appear, to arise, to seem, to come, to come to pass, to happen, to finish, to perform, to become. Its Strong's number is 1096. Its grammatical form γενέσθαι is given in Bagster as 'aor. 2, infin', which means it is a 2nd aorist type verb and an infinitive. An infinitive is the form beginning with 'to', as in those examples just listed, or to fish, to write, to complete, to err, to dodge, to invent. This word γενέσθαι occurs in other places with a strong future aspect, such as at Revelation 1:1 'things which must be soon TO ARISE '; 'what things have TO COME TO PASS'(Revelation 4:1); 'the things which must be soon TO ARISE' (Revelation 22:6). The context in John 8:58 is Jesus ' superiority over Abraham, so Jesus says, 'Before Abraham is TO ARISE, I Am'. The verb γενέσθαι is best rendered with that strong future aspect. But why, then, when we look at the KJV, do we find this strict infinitive, γενέσθαι, translated as 'was', an imperfect past tense put for an infinitive? It says, 'Before Abraham WAS, I am'. But that gives the silly impression that Jesus was around before Abraham! Whenever did an infinitive verb become an imperfect past tense verb? When we look at other versions we see the same dodge. One version has γενέσθαι as 'came into existence '. Yet they have it correctly as an infinitive in other places.
These inventions and grammatical violations all serve the polytheistic error of making Jesus seem to have been around before Abraham, so turning him into one of Mysticism's gods in its three gods system.
At John 17:5 there is the common and simple present infinitive verb εἶναι (=einai), Strong's 1511. Jesus is speaking of 'the world TO BE', or 'the world TO COME'. Why, then, does the KJV have that strict infinitive as 'was'? One version has the verb as a noun, 'existence'. The false translating makes Jesus seem to have been around before the world came into being. But neither the grammar nor wider context nor common sense allow such a mystical notion of 'the man Christ Jesus' (1 Timothy 2:5). Something more sinister the KJV does is put "made" for ἐγένετο (=egeneto) at John 1:3 instead of "arose", smuggling in a plural passive verb for what is a singular active verb, and it gives the silly impression that Jesus was the Creator rather than God. Kinda like when KJV puts "created" instead of "founded" in colossians 1:16

rod
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Are you god to judge heffner or someone else I unsubscribe

paullot