Binomial Distribution Probablity Coins

Visual explanation of probability of flipping coin. Probability of flipping a coin 6 times and get two tails and four heads. (and 6 tails and 0 tails).

Playlist on Probability

Created by David Longstreet, Professor of the Universe, MyBookSucks

[mohsenakhavan]

Thank you so much for clear definition of binomial distribution. I recommend this video to college students who would like to begin learning bionomial distribution. Deeply Appreciated!

[robertmeinen]

I noted a mistake with the last example formulas (beginning around 7:05). The denominator should include (6-6)! since k=6. Instead it has (6-0)! Great job with these videos!

[sudhiirreddy]

which software do you use to make videos

[baranitharan]

Please post mathematical derivation for Principal Component analysis

[saudy]

Thank you brother....
I have a question does not relate to Statistics.
What is the name of the recording program you use to explain your lessons?
Thank you...

[cremildamondlane]

hi, i did math stats, anova and regression end of last year, this year i did stochastic and im currently doing time series. I want to deepen my stats knowlege any sugestions on which courses i should do next?

[selcenzorlu]

May I ask which programme you use to create these videos. They are eye catching, simple to understand. Thank you in advance.

[tgardner]

I love you!!!  You make this so simple!

[sabinkhdk]

Great video. How to calculate probability of getting >2 heads?

[leaderg]

Thanks for this valuable lessons. could you please tell me what software do you use to move these figures?

[RexGalilae]

Thanks a lot! I was having trouble finding a reason for that coefficient term but I still don't understand why we add each product of p^r x q^n-r to itself 15 times, as in this case.
I mean, we can take the probability of a certain combination (out of the 15 different ones) and be happy with that. But why do we have to add the probability of each such combination? In other words, why the coefficient?

[brethenatural]

This was helpful!! Thank you for posting!!!

[understandingmaths]

Hmm. Just divide by 2^6 surely. 2 is the number of possible outcomes for one flip, which you get from the denominator of your probability fraction. Much easier to understand and to calculate. So (6C2)/2^6.

[christthangu]

Hi sir I have one doubt. If u clear for me!?

[tagrid]

Great, you are the best. Thanks so much

[ahaaanaachannelantaaa]

very nice explination
but plzzz
can ugive the clear give explination about bivariate random variables

[souravdas]

Thank you so much for these awesome videos, Sir. Did you create the videos on powerpoint?