Proof that G is an Abelian Group if f(a) = a^(-1) is a Homomorphism

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In this video I prove that G is an abelian group if f(a) = a^(-1) is a group homomorphism. This problem is from a book called "Foundations of Higher Mathematics" and it was written by Fletcher and Patty. This is a good book for learning to write proofs.

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I like these kinds of videos math sorcerer. please make a playlist regarding you proving stuff from advanced calculus. From Royden

BrianCarloRivera
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I used this book back in college in 2004 for a Math History class. I still have it.

If you're going to get it, get it used. The price for it new is outrageous.

demongeminix
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Thanks so much for this video. I will say that it is much better when you show your organic thinking and scratch work instead of presenting a clean well organized proof. It is better because we learn not just the results but also thinking strategies.

josesilesramirez
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Nice to see some proofs from group theory. I hope to see more soon!

bengtbengt
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These problems you work out are still above my skill level, but I still watch them hoping to still learn something.:-)

eflat
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Brought me back memories of a 1-semester study-unit "Groups & Vector Spaces" from the 1st year of my BSc Maths degree.

dreimikemount
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I have discovered a truly marvelous proof of this, which this comment box is too small to contain

malawigw
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Nice problem to demonstrate basic group ideas, introducing homomorphisms in a proof using inverses of elements.

Gallian, Durbin, and Hernstein (out of print) are good intro books.

acdude
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i just gotta say you’re one of my favorite youtubers ever!

mimicoolll
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I love maths and I'm mathematics ug student ... I fear about Abstract algebra but I love Maths... After ur video I will definitely fall in fearles love with abstract algebra.. thank you sir💜✨.. Keep doing these kind of playlist Sir 💜🥺

Kavyakavya-srrd
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Proff requesting if you can make more videos on mathematical statistics.

kundananji.simutenda
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wondering why it isn't more often called a communitive group being autological. If i am correct on that.

God-ldll
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We can see more: If G is not abelian and f:G->H and multiplication in H is swapped ( x (*H) y :-= y (*G) x ). Then f(a) = a^(-1)
is an isomorphism.
Is swapping allways isomorphic? No! There is a Loop (Quasigroup with neutral) with 5 Elements and swapping is not isomorh.

tamptus
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Brings me back to my Group Theory days. I enjoyed figuring out those.types.of.proofs. I always liked to think about alternate ways to prove a theorem I. Except when I got stumped. Then I was just happy to discover any proof that would work correctly and at that point I would leave well enough alone...LOL.

WitchidWitchid
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In this problem, can we assume f has an inverse? I used it in my proof, but I am not sure if it's right.

MrMegatherium
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You can also show the other direction, that if G is abelian then it is a homomorphism.

kilian