[L3] Calculus of Variations – 3: Extremization of Functionals

Course: Advanced Mechanics of Solids (ME60402)
Instructor: Dr Jeevanjyoti Chakraborty, Mechanical Engineering Department, IIT Kharagpur

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[Balboa_Rocky]

Sir at 29:26, I have a counterexample-
let us suppose
we are integrating ( a* cos x ) from -π to +π, where a is some +ve constant, it gives 0.But that doesn't mean cos x=0.
So how can we say that Euler Lagrange term is equal to zero?