Biblical Greek Performatives, the Aorist, and Mark 1:11

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Within New Testament Greek grammatical studies, Mark 1:11 is used to make a claim about the meaning of the aorist. This, and other examples like it, are used to claim that the aorist is not a true past tense, since God being pleased with his son is a present state. But this, of course, is based on our translation. In the course of this video, we will offer an alternative explanation for this grammatical phenomenon that shows that this example is not an argument against the aorist being past tense, and we will explain why the aorist is a natural form to use in this context. We will also offer an alternative translation that clarifies the meaning of this last clause.

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I was brought back here by your link in the NBLM discussion and noticed it seems like I didn't comment last time. I just wanted to say that this is the best and most coherent engagement on the topic I have seen from non-Porter perspective. I lean towards Porter/Campbells grammar of the verb because the arguments against it dont engage directly with their thesis. Here you are attempting to not just "explain it away" but also provide a test that would _predict_ why this tense form would be chosen. People like to argue forever (from the English) why one English tense-form better matches one Greek tense-form because of how that author subjectively understand a Greek phrase or sentence. I don't think the 'debate' can ever be resolved until a frameworks is presented that can properly predict the choice of tense-form.

jay.rhoden

Very interesting! Besides Biblingo, would you have any bibliography to recommend on this topic?

andreialves

The Textual Bible of the Ibero-American Bible Society translates it in the past tense: "Y de los Cielos vino una voz: Tú eres mi Hijo amado; en Ti me complací." (And a voice came from heaven: You are my beloved Son; in You I was pleased), giving the following comment: "I was pleased...". The aorist is very important. It expresses a punctual action, in this case, occurring before the foundation of the world → Ps 40.6-7, Is 42.1; Mt 12.18; 17.5; Mr 9.7; Lk 9.35; Jn 3.16."

AnestesiaASMR

Have you guys saw the article from Timothy Brookins, "A Tense Discussion: Rethinking the Grammaticalization of Time in Greek Indicative Verbs". If so, what do you think of his approach?

andreialves

Starting at 6:29, you've made a good case for an adoptionist reading of Mark, i.e., God declaring for the first time that right now, at this point in the narrative, Jesus is performatively made the beloved son.

KingoftheJuice

Biblical Greek Performatives, the Aorist, and Mark 1:11

Biblical Greek Performatives, the Aorist, and Mark 1:11

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