An Examination of John 1:1

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Examining the Greek of John 1:1

"Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος."

The words we are concerned with to understand the theology of John 1:1 are nouns. Greek nouns can be used in 1 of 4 cases: nominative, genitive, dative or accusative. Greek is not restricted by word order like English. Instead, the form of the noun changes with respect to its case. The two nouns that we are addressing in John 1:1 are Θεὸς (God) and Λόγος (Word).

Greek nouns can be rendered with or without the article. In English, we display the article as either “definite” (“the”) or “indefinite” (“a”). In Koine Greek, the definite article takes on the same case as the noun it is in reference to. The definite article is not always translated into English. Here’s an example from John 1:4: "ἐν αὐτῷ ζωὴ ἦν, καὶ ἡ ζωὴ ἦν τὸ φῶς τῶν ἀνθρώπων." The English translation of this passage reads, "In him was life; and the life was the light of men.” Bible translators consistently drop the definite article before ἀνθρώπων, translated as, “men,” or, “mankind.” The Watchtower has done the same thing in the New World Translation’s rendering of John 1:4: “by means of him was life, and the life was the light of men.”

In contrast to the definite article, there is no indefinite article in Greek. Indefinite nouns will lack a definite article. Here’s an example from John 1:6: "Ἐγένετο ἄνθρωπος ἀπεσταλμένος παρὰ Θεοῦ ὄνομα αὐτῷ Ἰωάννης." In English, this passage reads: "There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.” ἄνθρωπος appears again here; this time, there is no definite article to accompany the noun. Thus, it is translated indefinitely into English by the use of the word, “a.”

The third clause of John 1:1 reads, “καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.” Note the presence of the two nouns, Θεὸς and Λόγος. You’ll note also the presence of the definite article, ὁ, before Λόγος, but not before Θεὸς.

Based strictly on the Greek word order, the English equivalent of this passage would be, “…and God was the Word.” Referencing the absence of a definite article before Θεὸς (God), this would seem to indicate that the English reading of this passage is, “…and a god was the Word.” This is the crux of the argument for why the Jehovah’s Witnesses translate John 1:1 as, "and the Word was a god".

However, every translation, the NWT included, begins the third clause with, “…and the Word was…” so there is obviously something else going on in this passage.

Sometimes, definite nouns will also lack an article. We have an example of this in John 1:6. The argument could be made the that word for God, Θεοῦ, is indefinite, because it lacks the article. However, this is not the case, because we know which God John is referring to – Yahweh (Jehovah). As such, Θεοῦ is properly rendered in English as, “God.” Even though there is no article before, “God,” in the Greek, the Watchtower still has correctly translated this verse by rendering, “God,” as definite.

To identify the subject of a statement, we must look for a noun in the nominative case. At this point, we run into a problem – both Θεὸς and Λόγος are in the nominative case. Which one is the subject?

Compare the third clause with the second clause of John 1:1: "καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν..." Notice that Λόγος here is in the nominative case. This identifies it as the subject of this clause. Now, look at the word for God, Θεόν. Here, Θεόν is in the accusative case.

The accusative case is used for direct objects. “God,” here, is the direct object of, “the Word,” which explains why Θεόν is written in this form. Θεόν accompanied by the definite article, τὸν. John includes the definite article to specify which God he is referring to – Yahweh (Jehovah). Why does John include the definite article here, and not in the third clause? Only Λόγος is in the nominative case. Θεόν is not the subject of this clause, therefore it is not identified with Λόγος (the Word).

In the third clause, we encounter a predicate nominative. When we have two nouns in the nominative case, the nominative subject will have the definite article, while the nominative predicate will not.

The part of a sentence containing the verbal idea is called the predicate. When the verb is a linking verb, nouns in the predicate that are connected with the subject by means of the linking verb are nominatives.

In the case of the third clause of John 1:1, the verb is a linking verb – ἦν (was). What is ἦν (was) linking together? Θεὸς (God) and ὁ Λόγος (the Word). The fact that Λόγος has the definite article while Θεὸς does not makes it clear that John is telling us something about the Word – that the word was God in His nature or essence. When we translate this passage into English, we reverse the word order from the Greek. The verse is properly recited, “and the Word was God,” because the Word is the subject and God is the predicate nominative.
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The one talking in this video is bias as it uses the "essence" of the Trinity doctrine, to explain about the issue in John 1:1. John 1:1 implies then that there are two Gods of one essence.

diosdadoapias
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You have to understand that in the Bible the word for God is "Elohim" and means "Mighty ones" Now in today's modern language we have restricted the word "God" to mean the "almighty" basically the creator, but that was NOT so in the Bible days !

And I will show you. For example did you know that people, kings and judges in the Bible were CALLED Gods ?

To illustrate, Psalms 82 says: (now this is God speaking)
1 God takes his place in the divine assembly;
In the middle of the gods* he judges:

And Vs 6
“I have said, ‘You are gods,
All of you are sons of the Most High.

Wow, did you notice how even Jehovah calls them "Gods" and HE says "I have said "You are Gods" the question is HOW were they Gods ? And when you have come up with the answer to that, then you will answered the question "How can Jesus be a God " !

So if God can give the title of God to angles and people then WHY can't he give the same title to his son?

switchvideo
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Is Jesus God like the Father? I do not think so. But he could be divine. God refers only to the Most High like the Father Almighty, the God of Jesus. Jesus said to Mary(not his Mother) do not touch me for I have not yet ascended to my Father, and your Father, and to my God and your God(John 20:17).

diosdadoapias
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In the beginning was Eve . Eve was with the human (Adam), and Eve was a human.
So we understand Eve was of the same nature as the human (Adam).
But if we now use the definite article and say Eve was THE human . We are now saying Eve was Adam. We are saying they are the same person.
Most Trinitarians do not believe the Word was the same person as the Father.
This is the problem for those who argue that Theos is definite rather than indefinite. It reads as though the Word is the same person as The Father rather than the same nature.

aksk
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In the beginning was the word (Jesus as the word or spokesman for God) and the word was WITH does not make sense to say that the WORD was Gd if the writer had just identified him (Jesus ) as being WITH God....

In English that is not good grammar and makes no in Koine Greek there is NO indefinite article, that is the word "A" however the context and the fact that John uses Theos in connection with Jesus and "Ho-theos" in connection with his father Jehovah shows that John was not identifying WHO the word was but rather WHAT the word was....

Well known commentator William Barclay writes explains it all in one paragraph. John did not identify the Word here but was indicating what the Word was.
Finally John says that "The Word was God". There is no doubt that this is a difficult saying for us to understand, and it is difficult because Greek, in which John wrote, had a different way of saying things from the way in which English speaks ...When John said 'The Word was God' he was not saying that Jesus is identical with God, he was saying that Jesus is so perfectly the same as God in mind, in heart, in being that in Jesus we perfectly see what God is like." (Barclay, W. The Gospel of John, vol.1, The Dailey Study Bible Series, Saint Andrew Press, p. 39)

Various translations
"the Word was Divine" (Goodspeed, E.J. An American Translation N.T. 1923).

"the Logos was Divine" (Moffatt, J. The Bible 1950).

"And what God was, the Word was" (New English Bible 1961).

"the Word was Divine" (Schonfield, H.L. Authentic N.T. 1956).

"The Word was with God and shared his nature" (Translator's N.T. 1973).

"and the nature of the Word was the same as the nature of God" (Barclay, W. N.T. 1968).

In addition to their comments below, W. E. Vine, Prof. C. H. Dodd (Director of the New English Bible project), and Murray J. Harris admit that this ("the Word was a god") is the literal translation, but, being trinitarians, they insist that it be interpreted and translated as "and the Word was God." Why? BECAUSE OF A TRINITARIAN BIAS ONLY!

STROND
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I find it interesting that the last phrase in Greek reads "and God was the word"

I find that to be confirmation that Jesus is God

matthewschardtii
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I couldn't of explained it better myself and neither would I want to try, it's hard enough just watching it to be honest. Nice to see another video though that shows the weakness of Jehovah witnesses arguments

christopherb
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John 5:22 (NWT)
For the Father judges no one at all, but he has entrusted all the judging to the Son,

Matthew 16:27 (NWT)
For the Son of man is to come in the glory of his Father with his angels, and then he will repay each one according to his behavior.

(Jesus speaking)

Revelation 22:20 (NWT)
"The one who bears witness of these things says, 'Yes, I am coming quickly.""
"Amen! Come, Lord Jesus."

who’s speaking?!?
Jesus says to John he is coming quickly
(Amen) (so shall it be)


Revelation 22:12 (NWT)
"Look! I am coming quickly, and the reward I give is with me, to repay each one according to his work.

(Same speaker here rev 22:12 and matt 16:27)


Revelation 22:12-13 (NWT)
12 "Look! I am coming quickly, and the reward I give is with me, to repay each one according to his work.
13 l am the Al'pha and the O-me'ga, the first and the last, the beginning and the end.

omgitslegitgamer
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Try this. The Word = Jesus. God = the trinity. In the beginning was Jesus, and Jesus was with the trinity, and Jesus was the trinity. Jesus was in the beginning with the trinity. Also please read Deut 6.4-6, Mark 12.28-32, John 17.3, John 20.17, Rom 15.6, Rom 16.27, I Cor 8.6, II Cor 11.31, I Tim 2.5, Rev 3.2, Rev 3.12, and many other scriptures.

MichaelTheophilus
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What about every place where Christ calls Himself literally "The son of THE Man." I can see the Greek using "the God" to denote the one true God, they do that in Gen. 1. But "man" is singular in places like Mark 10:33 where He calls Himself "son of THE Man".

earlygenesistherevealedcos
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The auctioneer must know the difference between the Eureka Diamond and a eureka diamond.

ho Logos, ho Logos, ho Logos,
to distinguish the person from
a spoken word.

williamparker
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The weird thing about John 1:1 it's how there are no other places in scripture where the Greek is translated literally like it is in that ONE scripture. I have a Greek Septuagint.
That isn't really a translation at all, not into English grammer anyway. It's a word for word of the Greek. That's why in most translations the scripture doesn't sound like it makes sense.
If Trinitarians believe that Jesus is God,
In proper English the text reads " in the beginning was the word and the Word was God and God was with God" 🫣

bobbycecere
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I don’t believe God expects people to learn Greek, or to trust someone who says they know Greek, for them to get to the truth. Especially when Greek ‘scholars’ translate Stauros into cross.

But I digress.

Let’s break this down a little further shall
we?

In the beginning was the word (Jesus, Son of God), and the word (Jesus, Son of God) was with God (Almighty God, God the Father), and the word (Jesus, Son of God) was God (Almighty God, God the Father)?

No matter how you put it, it doesn’t make sense!!

What does make sense is that Jesus, being in the beginning with God (Genesis 1:26, John 1:1), in fact being God’s very first creation (Colossians 1:15, Proverbs 8:22, Revelation 3:14), actually calls God his God and worships God the Father. (Revelation 3:12, John 20:17)

stevenwebb
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Read the bible at Luke 9 verse 35, a voice from heaven says this is my son listen to him. That was when Jesus was on earth. The voice in Heaven is the Father. Many Bible books calling Jesus the Son of God, and John 1 verse one is being used to call Jesus God by so called Christians. Does this make sense 🤔 absolutely not. Too many bible books call Jesus the Son of God. Modern day Christians are calling Jesus God. So keep it simple, stick only to the Bible and not modern day Christianity, which is twisting the Bible. The Bible says Son of God hundreds of times. So this debate is not for bible readers, it's for people who listen to others too much. Hahahahahaha . Jesus prayed to the Father. Read Matthew 26 verse 39 and see for yourself that Jesus is praying to the Father in Heaven.

murreyoconnor
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Interesting, although the butchering of the Greek with the unpleasant American accent was a distraction. No attempt at a good pronunciation whatsoever. Quite harsh sounding.

robertnelson
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This debate is beyond stupidity because the bible says Son of God Way 🙄 too many times. Read Matthew 28 verse 18 when Jesus says all authority has been given to me, and ask yourself who gave him that authority, it is simple the Father in heaven gives Jesus his authority. Read the entire Bible,

murreyoconnor