Inverse Trig. Functions : arcsin(x) : ExamSolutions

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Tutorial on inverse trigonometric function of sin, arcsin(x).

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sir your videos are VERY helpful!i have my c3 paper tomorrow and very confident about it thanks to most of your videos :) thanks alot sir

tremolo
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frickin' horrid functions had to ruin my favoruite topic trig

mihjpkw
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(sinx)^-1 is 1/sin(x). But this is not about that sin^-1(x) is different. If sin(x)=y then x = sin^-1(y) pronounced x=inverse sin(y)

ExamSolutions_Maths
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sir thank you so much for explaining why 'y' is restricted precisely in that range. i hired a tutor to learn C3 and familiarize myself with it and she couldn't explain it either. makes me wonder if i should ask her for help for C4 too.

pluiedemiel
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so the y value is restrcted between that range simply to make it a function, as not having the range causes it to be many to one etc. ?

dineshn
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i'm retaking C3 this summer (even if im still 15 :P ) and this has completely changed the way i do maths (for the better of course!). thanks!!

edwinelguedj
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Thanks, your videos have been a great help! :)

SamLiddleG
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at 6:33 you have changes the swapped the y and x axis over, why?

ZUB
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This may sound like a daft question but is it true that the Maths from C1 through to C4 become more sophisticated ? 
I finished GCSE Maths last year. I presume that the natural course to take in listening to these videos is to work from C1 to C4 in order.

stevedl
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good luck! Hopefully it'll be an easy one

SamLiddleG
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well it wasn't easy by any means - i heard it was the hardest c3 exam paper issued in the lat 10 years - hopefully grade boundaries will go down

that question 3 really pissed me off - about converting sin and cos into tan = 1/3tan40

noor
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My C3 exam tomorrow, hoping all goes well, I need 83 UMS for an A overall

SamLiddleG
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Sounds like Gordon Ramsay. Especially at x2 speed

BobMarley-yzwh
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So, whats the difference between the Cosec graph and the arcsin graph, they are both referred to as the inverse of the sin graph.. please if anyone can clarify

kokorav
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Check out my inverse functions tutorial

ExamSolutions_Maths
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correct me if i am wrong, but according to the Laws of Powers, doesn't (sinx) to the power of -1 equal 1/(sinx) ? and in that case equal cosecx?

lazer