#2 AC machinery fundamentals - Simple loop in a uniform magnetic field

Lets start ac machinery fundamentals by revisiting an old concept from DC machines, a simple loop generator and emf induced....

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[ankurtrivedi]

Awesome Sir! Great explanation! I would also like to thank my Sir Mr Shivam Khare who got you so right. Although he's busy in literature world now-a-days still he's got that ability to recognize the real talent. It was he only who recommended to go through your videos. Now I can understand how right he was ! You are doing a great job Varun Sir. Keep it up!

[gustavomarcelo]

At 8:43, why do we assigned a as -ve polarity, b as +ve, c as -ve and d as + ve?

Can it be the other way around?

Should not it be eab and ecd instead of eba and edc if current flows from a to b ( high to low potential)?

[maryammukhtiar]

plz do the lectures for other subjects.your method of teaching is very nice.

[adamsacad]

Great explanation. helped me a lot in preparing this course.

[atulanand]

Sir please add some questions or give us some source for solving question based on your lecture.It will be great help in understanding your lectures.

[qazism]

Sir in segment ab and cd angle will be zero so cos(0)=1 then u can write BLV sin theda... My question is first finding angle u use cosine term then finally write sin term, why ?

[al_]

As in case of DC machinery fund. we take poles of curved shape so that vector B remains perpendicular to the entire loop and that's why we got no sin(theta) term becuz it became 1 due to 90(degree).
But here straight shape poles....(According 2 me, that's the reason).??

[AKSHAYKumar-hpol]

sir, in segment ab, sin (@) is coming due to cross product, then why not cos(@) is coming due to dot product. I hope, I able to put my problem

[kanha_kumar]

If. ( angle)ab is clockwise then w should also clockwise ? How we are taken anticlockwise

[AKSHAYKumar-hpol]

sir, rate at which flux cut, will give maximum Emf or maximum link of flux, give maximum EMF

[firstprinciplessparky]

Awesome. And you see that phi(t) = phi_max*cos(wt), and that this verifies universal flux rule coming from Faraday's Law, namely that e_in = d/dt(phi(t)). I believe you can derive these same results starting from Faraday's Law, but it's cool that you came at it using the Lorentz Force Law. Can these laws be reduced to one another somehow? Is one more general?

[jyotiranjangiri]

sir why we cannot use dc machine as ac machine by removing the commutators??

[hariprashath]

why that sin compenent in coming in segment ab

[adityakshirsagar]

I little bit confuse in the single loop equation

[hariprashath]

that vector product and cos is not clear

[bhashkarkumar]

Sir why your videos doesn't have speed options