Objection 5.5: Hebrews 10:5 changes the word “ears” to “body” in Psalm 40

Does Hebrews 10:5 deliberately change the words of Psalm 40? Find out if the New Testament authors twisted the Scriptures.

[TheHebrewBible]

The word “body” was used theologically in Hebrews 10, just compare verse 5 with 10. In the Hebrew text of Psalm 40-6 (v7 in Hebrew), the last word is עָלָי, which means "upon me". In the phrase "in the volume of the book" (בִּמְגִלַּת־סֵ֝֗פֶר bimgillat sefer), the preposition בִּ could be easily rendered as "with" instead of "in", in which case the text reads, "Lo I have come, with the volume of the book written upon me." And this agrees well with the next verse, "thy Torah is within my heart" (v.8 ). The reading, "in the volume of the book it is WRITTEN ABOUT ME” cannot be justified.

In other words, he says he has come with the volume of book (Torah) written UPON him, meaning, in his heart. The Torah (instruction, not "law") of God being written in the hearts is a common theme in the OT (Ps 37:31; Prov 3:1; Isa 51:7; Jer 31:33).

Another problem with the Messianic interpretation of Ps 40 is verse 12, "MINE INIQUITIES have taken hold upon me, so that I am not able to look up; they are MORE THAN THE HAIRS of mine head."

[jesusalfonzoperez]

With these explanations, I can finally comprehend why jews do not accept jesus christ, and that is because the new testament autors repeatedly quote texts out of context, or attribute them a meaning which no one who reads those passages in their context would agree with. Psalm 40 is talking about King David, and christians commentators explain that the expression "you have open my ears" means the same as "you have prepare me a body", so this is foretelling the Jesus' atonement. Well, that cannot be true, since the psalm 40 is talking about David and we have never read that David was crucified or offered as a sacrifice!

[diegovalleperez]

The New Testament never misinterpret or misquotes any verse of the Hebrew Scriptures. The author of Hebrews doesn't actually say that it is a Messianic prophecy or that it exclusively applies to Jesus. The point of the Psalm is that King David devoted his life to God and since Jesus lived by the same principle the author of Hebrews also applied that particular section to Jesus.

[larryg]

Right, just as we would quote an English translation today if we were speaking to an English audience, they used the Greek text because they were speaking to a Greek audience. Some variation between the texts is expected.

[mattandkim]

If the Book of Mormon quoted the words of Jesus in a similar manner, Christians would be appalled.

[diegovalleperez]

The man made oral law misinterprets and misquotes the scriptures:

1. The Bible makes it clear that the book of Torah was fully completed in its written form. ( Deut. 31:24-26, Josh.8:34-35, 2 Kings 22:8-11, Nech 8:1-3). But a midrash called “Degel Mahaneh Ephraim” argued that the Torah was not completed without the oral law (when it was finished in the 9th century AD).

2. Midrash shmuel says that God didn’t gave Moses the entire Torah because he wasn’t ready enough to receive it.

3. In Psalm 119:126 says It is time for thee, LORD, to work: for they have made void thy law. The context is praising God’s commandments and that Israel had broken his law. The Babylonian talmud twists the interpretation and says that is talking about the oral law shouldn’t be written and that the rabbis wrote down the oral law so it won’t be forgotten. So, the rabbis broke there own man made law.

4. According to Babylonian talmud, baba metzia 59b says that the “end of obedience to the Voice from Heaven”. In a legal dispute between the Talmudic sages, Rabbi Joshua declared that now there is no longer dependency on the voice from Heaven, but rather in the majority of the sages. Some rabbis in the Babylonian talmud branchot 17b say that the voice from Heaven is indeed God. So that means no more God for rabbinic Judaism.

[michaelsinger]

How the heck is it a rabbi's needs a fricken translation. HE SPEAKS A
AND KNOWS HEBREW, WHY DOES HE NEED A TRANSLATION.Allso if the holy ghost is G-D why the hell would he need a translation WHY PLZ TELL ME

[anthonyjames]

So you’re admitting that the author of Hebrews is referencing a faulty translation? Singer wins this one.

[misterflatline]

All the song's of David to the chorusmaster is to the messiah

[maxichannel]

This whole chapter in Psalm40 is about King David but the author of Hebrews tried to manipulate the chapter to sound like it was talking about Jesus.

I dislike Dr Brown sometimes because he is a sweet liar.

[nicolas.pascal]

1:43 very deceptive Dr. Brown. The claim is Jesus didn't fulfill most or any of the messianic prophecies, but the "prophecies" which he supposedly fulfilled, which aren't messianic, had to be twisted, a word(s) lost in translation, or taken out of context in order to make it work.

The way how you handle these things are very disappointing. Sometimes it's got that condescending feel to it too.

[misterflatline]

The scroll you will find him at is in the dead sea scroll 4Q534

[gamerjj]

I Guess mr . Tovia doesnt have problem with made little lower then angels of hebrews.

[galaxy]

Dr Brown you really need to debunk Tovia Singer more!

[MarkDiffin]

You guys just never get it, it just doesn't sink in - the Septuagint on the prophets etc was not written by the Rabbis and so does not help you