Muslim Proves Prophet Muhammad Is In The Bible | Hashim | Speakers Corner

#islam #christianity #debate

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[speechless]

Its not the eyes that are blind, but the heart...

[ak-tdf]

During pre-Islamic Arabia, Jews would boast to the polytheists that when their prophet would come he would destroy them. It’s undeniable that many Jews were in Arabia waiting for a prophet according to prophecies in their scripture who happened to be Prophet Muhammad SAW. It’s interesting that nowadays you won't see any Jew talking about this.

[Untethered_Power]

I really appreciate your channel. It is shedding so much light on questions I’ve had since I was a child. Thank you from the United States.

[azizankarim]

For Muslims, the bible is not our yardstick. We do not live our life according to the bible. We live our life according to the Holy Quran & the Sunnah...That's really DEEP, bro...😮😅

[QAHS]

In Dead sea scroll you can clearly see “אחמד" mentioned which means Ahmed but they changed it to “אֶתְמָךְ־" (Hekmat) which means whom i uphold in Isaiah 42, let's use Ahmed in Isaiah 42:1:
Here is my servant, Ahmed, my chosen one in whom I delight;
I will put my Spirit on him, and he will bring justice to the nations.

[YouTube.Vanced]

אין אלוהים מבלעדי אללה
מוחמד הוא שליח אללה

[Truth_come_to_perish_falsehood]

Also, one notices from the Gospel of John 1:21 that the Jews were waiting for the fulfillment of 3 distinct prophecies: The first was the coming of the Christ.The second was the coming of the Elijah. The Third was the coming of the Prophet (Muhammad ﷺ), from their brother tribes, who will be like Moses mentioned in Duetornomy 18:18 to fulfill the prophecies of Isaiah 42 to become a light for the gentiles (Non-jews or non-christians) and a covonent for the people mentioned in Isaiah 42:6.


The Awaited Prophet Was to Come From Arabia: Deuteronomy 33:1-2 combines references to Moses, Jesus and Muhammad. It speaks of God (i.e. God’s revelation) coming from Sinai, rising from Seir (probably the village of Sa’ir near Jerusalem) and shining forth from Paran. According to Genesis 21:21, the wilderness of Paran was the place where Ishmael settled (i.e. Arabia, specifically Makkah).

The Old Testament also tells us that Ishmael dwelt in a place called Paran: "While he (Ishmael) was living in the Desert of Paran, his mother got a wife for him from Egypt." [Genesis 21:21]


But, if christians priests/church or Jewish rabbis try to deceive you by telling the open lie that Ishmael is abandoned or banished, then never believe those lairs/deceivers.

Because, Ibrahim sacrificed his love for Ishmael by leaving his beloved son in the desert to please the True God. Then GOD said, "Take your son, your only son (at that time Ishmael was the only son not Isaac), whom you love, and Sacrifice him..— Gen 22:2 (NIV)

Because, Bible clearly talks about the Islamic sacrifices in Makkah by the sons of Ishmael And also the rising of the Last prophet Muhammad (ﷺ) of the Bible from Medinah, Saudi Arabia.

KJV Isaiah 60:7 All the flocks of Kedar shall be gathered together unto thee, the rams of Nebaioth shall minister unto thee: they shall come up with acceptance on mine altar, and I will glorify the house of my glory."

Genesis 25:13 clearly states that Kedar and Nebaioth are sons of Ishmael.


We are told that Ishmael will have many descendants and that he will be “made into a great nation”: And as for Ishmael, I have heard you: I will surely bless him; I will make him fruitful and will greatly increase his numbers. He will be the father of 12 rulers, and I will make him into a great nation. [Genesis 17:20] A great nation must refer to one led by a Prophet since this is greatness in GOD’s sight, not mere wealth or power rather it's spiritual, and not material..

That's why Isaiah talks about the rejoicing of the inhabitants of Ishmael's 2nd son Kedar who lived in Medina. We know that both Prophet Moses and Prophet Muhammad migrated to Medina (Biblical Midian) following conspiracies to assassinate them...And Arabia rejoiced by his coming mentioned in Bible Isaiah 42:11.

📖 Isaiah 42:11 Let the wilderness and its towns raise their voices; let the settlements where Kedar lives rejoice. Let the people of Sela sing for joy; let them shout from the mountaintops.

Where did Kedar settle❓The Old Testament scholar Charles Foster also identifies the the "Land of Kedar" with ‘Hedjaz’ which is Western Saudi Arabia including its famous cities of Makkah and Madina. [Charles Foster, The historical geography of Arabia, P. 130]


One of the earliest biographies of the Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ), Tabaqat Ibn Sa’d (d. 845 CE), documents one of the chains of genealogy, which confirms that the Prophet was a direct descendant of Ishmael through his second son Kedar.


We can see, like the Qur’an, Abraham is given glad tidings with respect to his descendants. In fact GOD promises to establish his covenant with all of Abraham’s “seed” without exception: 📖 Genesis 17:7 I (GOD) will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your GOD and the GOD of your descendants after you.

God informs Abraham that the sign of the covenant shall be circumcision [Genesis 17:10]. And Abraham immediately circumcises himself and Ishmael, thus establishing God’s covenant with Ishmael [Genesis 17:23].



We can also see In 📖 Isaiah 42:19 & 42:24, that the 'Nation of Israel' is explicitly identified as the blind and condemned people therefore the guiding and righteous servant (Prophet Muhammad ﷺ, the Arabian prophet) must be someone other than Israel.

Yes, 📖 Isaiah 42:17-25 talks about those blind pagans Arabs, Romans, Persians etc. and also those Jews and Christians who rejected the Last Prophet (Muhammad ﷺ) of the Bible

Because, they neglected Deuteronomy 18:18 which clearly predicted that this Prophet must be someone from their brethren (their brother tribes, the Arabs),


The first section of Isaiah 42, verses 1 – 17, describe a momentous servant in extremely positive terms, one who will be a “light for the Gentiles (non-jews/christians)” (42:6), will “open eyes that are blind” and “free people from darkness” (42:7) of idols worships. Isaiah 42:11 Even prophecies that This prophet will rise from the city of  Medinah, Western Saudi Arabia.




Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ) brought a new Law like Moses unlike Jesus (Isaiah 42:4). Prophet Muhammad became a light for the Gentiles and a covonent for people mentioned in Isaiah 42:6. Don't they (Christians and Jews) see ?

Both Muhammad and Moses were brought up in their enemies' houses, appeared among idolaters (Isaiah 42:7-8), were at first rejected by their own people and afterward accepted by them.  Both fled from their enemies (Moses to Midian, Muhammad to Medina, we know that geographically, Biblical Midian is located in modern day Western Saudi Arabia. Both encountered their enemies (Isaiah 42:4), and both were victors in miraculous ways (Isaiah 42:13-17), both were accepted as prophets/statesmen and, Both were given comprehensive law code of life (Isaiah 42:21), Both enabled their followers to conquer the Palestine. (peace be upon them both)---These correlations prove that Muhammad (ﷺ) is the Prophet according to Deuteronomy 18:18.


And Our Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ) passed all the conditions stated in Deuteronomy 18:15-22 for identifying the true prophet of the Bible.


Analogies between Moses and Jesus overlooks not only the above similarities but other crucial ones as well (e.g. the natural birth, family life and death of Moses and Muhammad but not Jesus, who was regarded by his followers as the son of GOD and not exclusively a messenger of GOD, as Moses and Muhammad were and as Muslims belief Jesus was. (Peace be upon them all)

“Paraclete” (Ahmad/Praised one) that Easa Messiah foretold to come after him was described as one who shall not speak of himself, but whatsoever he shall hear (from God through angel), that shall he speak . . .(John 16:13)

📖 Isaiah 42:9 See, the former things have taken place, and new things (Al-Quran, Shariah Law) I (God) declare; before they spring into being I announce them to you.

📖 Isaiah 42:10- Sing to the Lord a new song, his praise from the ends of the earth, you who go down to the sea, and all that is in it, you islands, and all who live in them.

The statement “a new song” means a new way of worship. This is exactly what Islam represents. The emphasis on the new song here is singing the praise of GOD all over the earth. The Qur’an opens with the statement “Praise be to GOD, LORD of the worlds” and is recited by Muslims all over the world during prayers every day.


📖 Isaiah 42:12- Let them give glory to the Lord and proclaim his praise in the islands. This seems to indicate that this special person’s impact will be far reaching. Islam spread rapidly throughout the Arabian peninsula, even reaching as far as Spain in just over a hundred years after Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ).]

Isaiah 42:13- The Lord will march out like a champion, like a warrior and will triumph over his enemies. GOD uses Muhammad as an instrument to wipe out evil and manifest His judgment on evil doers. Let us see how the Qur’an confirms this in the battle of Badr when around 300 ill-armed Muslims faced a thousand strong army of the pagans. Al-Quran ch 8 verses 17-19

Why should you not fight in GOD’s cause and for those oppressed men, women, and children who cry out, ‘Lord, rescue us from this town whose people are oppressors! By Your grace, give us a protector and give us a helper!’? [Chapter 4, verse 75] …it's the proof of Isaiah 42:1 and he will bring justice to the nations

[khozabenhamid]

A very strong hint..sadly, Christian deny it..although it came from their own book 🤨

[ButterNuz]

May Allah make the hearts of Muslims soft and firm on the truth

[MuhammadNasirAliyu-kh]

Great and clear answer, May Allah Bless you and help you dawah brother

[JesusIsOurLord-xkzz]

Isaiah 42:10-17 is a song. Also when it says Sela it’s not talking about that Sela it’s taking about city around the Dead Sea. This verse is just talking about Israel. Isaiah 41:8-10 identifies Israel as a servant and has similar language. Also Muhammad isn’t deaf or blind (Isaiah 42:19.)

[mohamedt]

Beautiful, May Allah bless you uncle hashime. Hope to come UK and see you one day.

[abdrashidgizmosolicitor]

mashaAllah!love the muslim brain.Allah'azwJ continue to increase us in beneficial

[Truth_come_to_perish_falsehood]

Jewish people reject the notion that Jesus is the Messiah; So from their perspective, the servant of Isaiah 42 stands as an unfulfilled prophecy of nearly three thousand years as theit Messiah is yet to arrive. Now there is a serious issue with this understanding. We’ve already seen that the Prophet Muhammad (ﷺ) fulfils all the criteria mentioned in Isaiah 42, so the question must be asked: why would Isaiah set out criteria that can be fulfilled by individual (Prophet Muhammad ﷺ) other than the Messiah, if it is indeed the Messiah to whom Isaiah 42 refers? If Isaiah is speaking of the Messiah, then we would expect that he would set out criteria that only the Messiah can fulfil. Otherwise it defeats the purpose of prophecy in the first place, because prophecies are supposed to be specific.

Because, one notices from the Gospel of John (1:19-21) that the Jews were waiting for the fulfillment of three distinct prophecies. And The 3rd was the coming of the Prophet (Muhammad ﷺ. An Arabian Prophet), from their brethern (brother tribes, the Arabs), who will be very like Prophet Moses mentioned in Duetornomy 18:18 to fulfill the prophecies of Isaiah 42 to become a light for the gentiles meaning non-Jews or non-Christians and a covonent for the people clearly mentioned in Isaiah 42:6.

This is obvious from the 3 questions that were posed to John the Baptist: “Now this was John’s testimony, when the Jews of Jerusalem sent priests and Levites to ask him who he was. He did not fail to confess, but confessed freely, “I am not the Christ.” They asked him, “Then who are you? Are you Elijah?” He said, “I am not.” “Are you the Prophet?” He answered, “No.” (John 1:19-21) From this we conclude that Jesus Christ is not the prophet mentioned in Deuteronomy 18:18.

Prophet Muhammad brought a new Law like Moses unlike Jesus (peace by upon them all). Yes, Sharia law is mentioned in Isaiah 42:4 and Isaiah 42:21. Prophet (ﷺ) Muhammad became a light for the Gentiles and a covonent for the people mentioned in Isaiah 42:6. Don't they (Christians and jews) see❓


Both Muhammad and Moses were brought up in their enemies' houses, appeared among idolaters (Isaiah 42:7-8), were at first rejected by their own people and afterward accepted by them. Both were given comprehensive law code of life (Isaiah 42:21), both encountered their enemies (Isaiah 42:4) and were victors in miraculous ways (Isaiah 42:13-17), both were accepted as prophets/statesmen and both migrated to Medinah (Biblical Midian) following conspiracies to assassinate them (Isaiah 42:11). Both (Moses and Muhammad) enabled their followers to conquer the Palestine. The natural birth, family life and death of Moses and Muhammad but not Jesus. (Peace be upon them all)---These correlations prove that Muhammad (ﷺ) is the Prophet according to Deuteronomy 18:18 who Will be very like Prophet Moses to fullfil the prophecies of Isaiah 42 to become a light for the gentiles (non-Jews or non-Christians) and a covonent for the people clearly mentioned in Isaiah 42:6.

Being linked to Kedar and Sela geographically as well as Prophet Muhammad’s genealogy is also linked. His lineage can be traced back to Ishmael directly through Kedar: Abraham > Ismael > Kedar > Adnan > Nizar > Kinanah > Ghalib > Murrah > Qusai > Hasim > Abdul Muttalib > Abdullah > Muhammad [In summary, this verse (Isaiah 42:11) pinpointed the exact location of Prophet Muhammad, the city of Madinah in Saudi Arabia.]


Yes, Isaiah 42 17-25 describes the pagans and those Jews and christians who rejected the Last Prophet (Muhammad ﷺ) of Bible.


Now from the point of view of both Christians and Muslims, Jesus is indeed the Messiah. Now If we compare the characteristics of Isaiah 42 with the life and teachings of Jesus as they are portrayed in the New Testament, then the Messiah Jesus falls short in fulfilling the prophecy. For example, Isaiah 42 states that the servant will not cry out:He will not shout or cry out, or raise his voice in the streets.

[Isaiah 42:2] This disqualifies Jesus, who complained and literally cried out directly to GOD, according to the Bible, at many points in his ministry: From noon until three in the afternoon darkness came over all the land. About three in the afternoon Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” (which means “My GOD, my GOD, why have you forsaken me?”). [Matthew 27:45-46]

Actually Jesus spoke Aramaic which is the language that was closely intertwined with Arabic. He said "Eli, Eli" which sounds a little like "Illa, illa" pretty much like "Illah" in Arabic.

No, it is not about Jesus. To understand the real identity, we must look at the translation done by the Jews, not the Christian version, because Isaiah is a Jewish book. Verse 53:3 says: Despised and rejected by men, a man of pains and accustomed to illness, and as one who hides his face from us, despised and we held him of no account.

Was Jesus despised by all men? Was he accustomed to illness (was he often sick?) does he hide his face from other people? Was he “held of no account”, meaning ignored by others? Clearly, the answer to the above questions is “No”. So this verse does not refer to Jesus.

Verse Isaiah 53:7 then states that he opened not his mouth. Wrong! Jesus spoke during his trial with both Pontius Pilot and the Jews. Verse 9 then says that he made his grave with the wicked and rich. Jesus did not make his grave, was buried alone. Yes I know he was meant to be buried like a criminal because he was considered one. But verse 9 says he was to be buried with both. Jesus was buried alone. It then goes on to say that God was please by bruising Jesus and that Jesus's seed would prolong the days in verses Isaiah 53:10-11. Jesus never had any seed.

Verse Isaiah 53:12 (which is where your case is strongest) states that his soul shall be poured out unto death. However in the Hebrew and Aramaic texts the word death is not present. Now again assuming this is Jesus (AS) this description fits the Islamic story much better. Jesus was not killed as the word for death is not present. He MAY have been put on the cross. And he was exalted and lifted up (the ascension). But again, this is clearly not Jesus as he does not fulfill this.

[kalashnikov_z]

WTH,
Someone is playing Clash royale on background 😂,

When he said literally
I can hear Hog 😂

[mrsaluyt]

I thought it was removed in the new version but it's good to know it's still there

[IsmailMail-gqdp]

That the first time i heard some one said that's irrelevant at the first statement then explaining about the truth. Mostly directly explaining prophecies in the bibble verses
Our believe based on Alquran. MasyaAllah... Well said brother.

[crimson]

Not only that, the first guy who found out that the prophet Muhammad pbuh will be a messenger of God/Prophet was a Christian monk.

[AkbarAli-ykoy]

Masha'Allah, Allahuakbar. May Allah swt grant U Jannatul Firdaus Sir, A'amiin.