SA38: Moment Distribution Method (Beam Analysis 1)

In addition to updated, expanded, and better organized video lectures,
the course contains quizzes and other learning content.

[k]

The best structural engineering explanatory channel

[JohnDiggle]

I wish I found this before my exam. I'll probably have to retake anyway so I'll save this for later

[nitin]

ohh thank u guys...my exams are coming...was really waiting for it...thanks a ton

[SrilankanProud]

Thank you very much for your effort. Arrows at 7.47 min at BC member for shear is incorrect. Is should be opposite.

[pradyumnakulkarni-iz]

Can you please explain a worked example of solving a continuous beam with node moment and span loads.

[nserekomuhammad]

Can you pls explain what is done for beam with internal hinge for that method

[VocaFanever]

I just want to ask, is the table used like per category? For example if the beam had uniformly distributed load, a moment at point B or a vertical force going down somewhere else, do we just do a table for uniformly distributed load first then the rest, one by one, and then add them all up in the end to find out what the vertical forces would be?

[thyathnarongny]

can you do a video demonstrat why the redistribution effect take place and why do need to consider them in the analysis ?

[midnightson]

Hello Dr Structure.. at 1:50 when calculating member stiffnes for both secitons, I was under the impression that when you have a pin or roller support then k = 3EI/L yet just EI/L was used...are you able to explain the difference please

[midnightson]

Hello Dr Structure Please help... Case 1 : at 7:02 member end BA = +6, then at 7:38 it is put into the equilibrium equation as -6
Case 2 : at 10:11 member end BA = -2.4, then at 10:23 it is in the equilibrium equation as -2.4.
So my question is, how can the SAME member end be summed up as positive in Case 1 and CHANGE to negative in the equilibrium equation for case 1, but in Case 2 it is negative when summed up and REMAINS negative in the equilibrium equation for Case 2?

[davexkaranja]

Why do you keep changing the sign convention for moments? First its -ve for anticlockwise at 3:29 then +ve for the same at 8:38

[ruchiawasthi]

So can we conclude that the use of distribution factor in the whole table appears only once?

[bananian]

This is so much easier to understand than my instructor and it's free, wtf!

[berkgumus]

Hi so what if there is a free end? Do we consider it like there is a joint there and nothing changes?

[tanooppersaud]

how did you obtain the values 0.6 and 0.4 ? ( when carrying over )

[mangeshtajne]

For member BC far end is 'C' and it is roller support there and for roller support stiffness factor is 3/4.EI/L as far as I know so please tell me how do u take stiffness factor of EI/L there?

[itachi]

thankyou very much...this is really helpful

[roushanrounak]

Hello sir...good morning...sir i have a doubt...suppose a continuous beam consisting three span AB BC CD...ALL are pinned support...there is no load in any span on the beam...it is given that support B settles by an amount 15mm...Now i know that A FEM will be induced in span AB and BC...FEM(AB), FEM(BA), FEM(BC), FEM(CB)..ALL will be equal to 6EI(delta)/L^2...but sir what will be the sign convention if i consider anticlockwise rotation as positive..please help sir...really urgent...thank you

[forexFX-pe]

thanks that is usefull but in 7:44 where 5/6 in B came from

[amitkumarmeena]

@Dr. Structure
Q .1 Can you please tell me why carrying over member-end moment always taken Half of the previous end moment ?
Q.2 What will be the procedure to solve it if the Joint B having 3 or more members passing through it ( example : Frame Analysis using Moment Distribution Method ) ?
Q. 3 How can we solve a problem having Degree of indeterminacy 2 or more ?