Ramanujan's integral is ridiculous!

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Correction: around the 7:15 mark I forgot to switch the limits of integration to cancel out the negative sign. Apologies.

maths_
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Amazing result. Ramanujan was a genius

raghavgoyal
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At 8:52 you can't just split marked integral into two, since both are infinite and you obtain indeterminate form "infinity minus infinity". The problem disappears if you replace the integral from 0 to alpha^2 with lim_{ epsilon -> 0+ } integral from epsilon to alpha^2 .

slappy
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This guy makes an integral equation sounds like u. Love it!!!!

StillOriginalrtcd
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At minute 8:59, you have to switch the limits of integration to be able to do the next step. So, the first integral should have negative sign. Thank you for your effort.

MrWael
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9:45 When you split integral from 0 to alfa2 in integrals from 0 to 1 and 1 to alfa2 you imply alpha2>1 but this is not per se guaranteed. You told just alpha>0. Is this derivation still valid if alpha<1?

pietroantonioli
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Sir, you split the limit from 0 to (alpha)^2 into limit from 0 to 1 and 1 to (alpha)^2. But alpha>0 its not necessary that it is greater than 1. Can we actually insert 1 like that between limits? 9:40

deep
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incredible result...ramanujan was really a genius

subodhkumardhirhe
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8:26 - 8:29 No, you cannot do that, because two integrals you are trying to split it into diverge.

angelmendez-rivera
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hi maths 505: so are you planning to make a video on proving zeta(4)=pi^4/90? thanks for your time.

anupamamehra
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8:59 Can we do that? In the first integral the bounds are the wrong way around. What have I missed?

neilgerace
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5:40 darn that's one isomorphic accent, great vid as always my friend.

manstuckinabox
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9:04 integral from infinity to alpha square plus integral from zero to alpha square= integral from zero to infinity, which law is this sir?

fasihullisan
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@ t=5:30, you integral representation of the Euler constant is incorrect. Punch that into the calculator.

matthaiosghanim
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Does this mean genetics is indeterminate after 69 generations?

ruffifuffler
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int_0^{alpha^2} (1/z) does not make sense

tiripoulain
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How you give z 2 identities in one integral

abdoshaat
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The solution you presented was by ramanujan himself? Where was it published?

DrunkenCArtist