IAS 36 IMPAIRMENT OF ASSETS (PART 2)

This video continues from part one and solves two important questions that explain further advanced concepts.
Follow this link to watch the part 1 of this video

[abdulkabia-kftw]

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[blessinge]

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[kwamosoascensionpraiz]

Was worried abt Impairment buh you made it simple to me

[atolomartha]

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[innocentmanda]

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[princeagyei]

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[daudabalogun]

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[Porshgrace]

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[lancestephens]

there's something i don't understand. The problem states that the Net Assets with a carrying amount (which includes goodwill both purchased and internally developed) is 420K. Why are you adding goodwill again to bring the total up to 660K. if anything, the goodwill should be subtracted from the 420K to bring the Net Assets with a carrying amount to 180K. The question stated that SEVERAL YEARS EARLIER which means that the goodwill totaling 240K is already in the 420K balance since it happened earlier. However, if the problem stated that the Net Assets before goodwill is 420K then i can see the 240K being added to the 420K. Please explain as i am confused by the facts.

Also, what is internally developed goodwill? I understand that you can't show internally developed goodwill on the books (i.e. meaning that it's not part of your assets). As such, why is it part of the allocation equation when it doesn't or shouldn't exist? Kindly explain this as well as i am having a tough time understanding this concept. Thanks so much

[Patriciabuadi]

Good Teacher, he takes his time to teach and makes it easy.