An intuitive explanation the Black Scholes' formula

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Provides a simple, intuitive, or shall we say instinctive explanation of the Black Scholes formula
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I watched this video and loved the way he decompose complexity into naturally simple problem. Concise, accurate and easy to explain to myself later.

vvishwakarma
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Finally an intuitive and straight to the point explanation for BSM formula. Congratulations!!!

alevitorino
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This has to be the best explanation for Black Scholes model! Thanks so much! Will be trying to re-create your excel!

finalpurez
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Aaaamazing! I've seen this formula so many times, and this explanation is the best!

ammonshumway
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I love it when you walk us through with concrete examples

서희수-rd
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Legend. Gave me the 'click' moment in my head. Thank you!

entertainity
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Very simply and clearly explained. Thanks. Please add more such videos especially on interest rates modeling

surendrabarsode
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According to the example N(d1) and N(d2) are same - how to reconcile with BS

saumitrabhaduri
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In case any one wondering conversion LOGNORMDIST to prob value, the prob value is LND (S2)- LND (S1).. i.e. subtract lower
Quantpie, please confirm if that's valid approach.

अंतुबर्वा
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Best to watch before I head into the difficult textbook

monicatian
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Is there a specific term referring to a call whose strike price is an equal distance between the share price and the "breakeven" price?

commonmancrypto
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Worth pointing out that it is the mean of the log return, not the mean of the stock price?. Seems obvious, but not always clear.

stonecastle
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Another channel on YT mentioned that if we assume the risk-free rate = 0 (implies random walk), then we shouldn't include the σ²/2 part into the drift calculation, instead, just zero out the whole drift calculation. In this case (according to the formula you give), m should be = ln S₀ - 0.

Why was his equation different than yours even when you both assume risk free rate = 0?

FenderAddict
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I never understood black scholes until this video

spice
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isn't at money option delta should be 0.5?

mattl
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can I know why the mu is InS0 -0.5 *variance *T ?

thanks

abcchanaskh
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Your calculation assumes that N(d1)=N(d2), as you are using the same probabilities to calculate the sums. This is not right. N(d1) is always greater than N(d2). The two probabilities are never the same.

hit
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Hi, I could not calculate the number as your. Could you share the excel file of the prob. for me (if have ) ? thanks a lot

abcchanaskh
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Can i cite this video in my final thesis?

Pier_Py
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