Personal vs Proprietary Rights | Land Law

The doctrine of estates is the idea being that although we cannot own the physical land itself we can have a right to enjoy, use and control that land. In modern day, the only remaining legal estates in land are the “estate in fee simple absolute in possession” (or “freehold”) and the “term of years absolute” (or “leasehold”) (LPA 1925 s.1(1)(a)). Historically there were more than 2 legal estates.

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[Babychicken_]

Ive been struggling soooo much to understand land law you dont even understand how helpful and simplified this was, thank you so much!!

[sealife]

You are a hero. Thank you Gareth for doing the digestible notes. For free

[DrJenYes]

I've been reading this repeatedly and couldn't grasp it! You explained it so well that in one video I understood this! Thank you!!

[zilak]

The video was very helpful thank you! I just wanted to check, when establishing whether it is proprietary or personal right, do the parties have to express and state which one it is?

[idildoeslaw]

What right would an individual have if they have a contract is sales and paid for the house, but have not completed completion?

[sisyphussocrates]

could you please help with this question? " examine if english land law always respect the distinction between rights in rem and personam?

[aldeveron]

Very informative. Thank you. In the UK, when a finance company or mortagee repossesses land due to the mortagee's failure to keep up mortgage payments, does that finance company/mortgagee have the right to sell the freehold, even when the non-paying martgagor's name is still on the title deed?

[matrixdecoded]

Just a question for the sake of curiosity - in a technical sense has a person renting a motel room acquired an 'interest in land' and could they technically be referred to as a 'land owner', obviously for a very short duration?