Lane Tipton | Steadfast Savior: Unveiling the Immutable Mediator in Hebrews

Dr. Lane G. Tipton presents on the profound Christological insights of the book of Hebrews. Dr. Tipton will guide us through the scriptural foundations and doctrinal significance of Christ’s immutability, revealing how this aspect of the Son provides unwavering assurance to believers.

This live webinar was recorded on August 14, 2024.

Chapters

00:00:00 Introduction
00:05:56 Steadfast Savior
00:51:04 Questions & Answers
01:45:01 Conclusion

[janetfluker]

Wow. Thank you so much Dr Tipton! Very encouraging!

[langer]

Christ never lost a sheep, which he did not seek: and never sought a sheep, which he did not find.
- Augustus Toplady

[jtlearn]

Did Lane shave his head!? 😅 looks good!

[MrJohnmartin]

Melchizedek's gifts presume animal sacrifice, therefore if Jesus imitates Melchizedek, the Eucharistic bread and wine must also presume upon a NT sacrifice with the gifts of bread and wine contrary to Reformed theology. How does Jesus remain a priest in the order of Melchizedek after the resurrection when Melchizedek offered bread and wine to Abraham after Abraham's Ur to Salem resurrection journey?

If the cross is the once and for all sacrifice and there is no need for any more sacrifice how does Jesus continue to offer gifts and sacrifices in the heavenly sanctuary (Heb 8:3)?

If Jesus is the great high priest and continues to intercede for the faithful, how does he intercede as high priest without reference to applying intercessory sacrifice within the heavenly sanctuary?

Ezekiel promises the day of atonement and Passover sacrifices will be united in the new age, and Isaiah promises the new Exodus. When Jesus enters the heavenly sanctuary as high priest He enters imitating the day of atonement sacrifice. As such, noting Ezekiel's promise Jesus enters the heavenly sanctuary n inference includes Jesus offering the Passover sacrifice of the cross. And yet according to reformed theology, there is no more sacrifice after the cross. Why then does Jesus enter the heavenly sanctuary fulfilling Ezekiel's promise uniting the day of atonement sacrifice with the Passover without Jesus ever offering the Passover sacrifice? We know the Passover sacrifice of the cross is incomplete in Reformed theology, because the original Passover sacrifice required the faithful to eat the lamb before the exodus liberation completing the sacrifice and reformed theology denies Jesus is eaten in the Eucharist.

If Jesus remains a priest in the order of Melchizedek and the once for all sacrificial cross is already made, why does Jesus enter the heavenly sanctuary rather than just reign from the Davidic throne?

If Jesus does not offer sacrifice within the heavenly sanctuary, why does Jesus intercede for his people without sacrifice when the sanctuary always infers the day of atonement sacrifice?

If Jesus remains a priest in the order of Melchizedek who originally gave Abraham bread and wine and Jesus instituted the Euchristic sacrifice with the species of bread and wine, how does Jesus fulfill Melchizedek giving Abraham bread and wine without the Eucharistic sacrificial connotations of bread and wine granted the NT faithful?

Jesus instituted the Euchristic sacrifice with the species of bread and wine imitating Melchizedek who originally gave Abraham bread and wine. Hebrews states the faithful eat and drink from the altar (Heb 13:10) inferring the faithful eat and drink the Eucharist bread and wine contextualised by the altar. All throughout the OT the altar references a ministerial priest offering covenant sacrifice for the remission of sins. How does reformed theology explain Hebrews concept of Jesus continuing priesthood in the heavenly sanctuary complemented by the Earthly altar (Heb 13:10) inferring an ongoing Euchristic sacrifice with the faithful consuming the sacramental sacrifice, completing the Passover sacrifice of the cross?

Hebrews ties Jesus' immutable divine nature to His immutable high priesthood. If Jesus said this is my body and this is my blood inferring the Eucharist is only a symbol of Jesus body and blood, then Jesus body and blood is only a symbol and not human or divine. How can Hebrews affirm the above twin immutability of the divinity and Jesus priesthood when the Eucharist is only a symbol and does not contain the full reality of Jesus divinity and humanity?

If Jesus is the great high priest and intercedes for His people by prayer to the Father, the once for all cross must be applied through Jesus' intercessory prayer contrary to the reformed doctrine of a perfect sacrifice that takes away sins. For the addition of intercessory prayer either adds to the cross, or applies the cross's merits causing Jesus to continue His priesthood after the cross. If so, how does Jesus only intercede through prayer when Jesus remains a great high priest and the OT high priest specifically entered the sanctuary to offer the day of atonement sacrifice by sprinkling the bulls blood on the ark of the covenant without or without reference to the high priest's prayer?

Alternatively, if Jesus is the high priest, His sanctuary intercessory prayer without applying His blood within the sanctuary never fulfills the OT high priest's sacrificial actions. Jesus entering the sanctuary with day of atonement overtones ignores the original day of atonement intent to have the high priest offer sacrifice, deforming the NT antitype, making Jesus atonement incomplete and therefore theologically incompetent. The reformed atonement theology that denies the Eucharistic sacrifice occurring in the heavenly sanctuary is equivalent to the OT high priest entering the sanctuary to only offer prayers of intercession without ever applying the bulls sacrificial blood within the sanctuary. Evidently if the OT high priest only offered prayers the day of atonement sacrifice would not be offered and Israel would never have its sins forgiven. Jesus procuring the forgiveness of sins requires more than intercessory prayer and requires a high priestly sacrifice offered in the heavenly sanctuary to complete the NT antitype of the day of atonement sacrifice.

If Jesus is the great high priest and the OT high priest operated with the Levitical priests, how does Jesus now operate without reference to any NT fulfillment of the Levitical priests?