Prove that the Probability of the Impossible Event is Zero

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Prove that the Probability of the Impossible Event is Zero

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Isnt it possible to prove the statement without using axiom 2? Once we find P(S)=P(S)+P(⍉), it directly folows P(⍉)=0 (you do'nt even have to use S, any set works).

larspos
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Love your work. Helps me keep going with my learning :) Thanks the recent splurge in proof math it’s really been lifting my interest in different areas.

coolHarry
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Just beautiful!! It is a nice feeling of gratitude when after a time to understand the proofs in math you get also in love with math!

bakirnahi
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In Finland we use the notation m.o.t. (= "mikä on todistettavaa") as a sign of finishing a proof, which is the same as the latin q.e.d. (quod erat demonstrandum). Alternatively we may use a small empty box (without the cross).

SimoExMachina
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I was thinking if you shouldn't prove before that the axiom 3 is also true for finite sequences of disjoint sets

ricardolopes
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stunning video The Math Sorcerer. I crushed the thumbs up on your video. Maintain up the outstanding work.

KeyserTheRedBeard
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Hi! I think there is a problem in this proof if we are very careful. Axiom three doesn't say that you can count the probability of P(A U B)=P(A)+P(B) even if A and B are mutually exclusive. Axiom three talks about infinite sequence of events... You can proof of cause that P(A U B)=P(A)+P(B) is indeed true, but it does not follow directly from axiom three.

johannesvaasalainen
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Intuitively obvious, but the proof is an another problem, isn't it? Meanwhile I'm enjoying a cup of cardamom coffee now, just a smidgen cardamom into coffee, then you can experience the depth of flavor of coffee ! Please try it.

shunsukenatsusawa
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why mathematicians ate like that!!!!
The probability for an impossible event to happen is zero, I think it is an axiom

heyman
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Probability is the branch of math I dislike the most. I passed the one obligatory course in second time, I was only 1 point above the corner :) unfortunately 100% of job orders related with Mathematics are Probability, Statistics and its applications (Finance, Data analysis, machine learning) so its not easy for me to find a Job.

robertnyc
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Just another observation: Sample space is defined as (wikipedia):

"In probability theory, sample space (also called sample description space[1] or possibility space[2]) of an experiment or random trial is the set of all possible outcomes or results of that experiment.[3]"

But impossible event (outcome) CAN'T be the member of this set! It it were it would be possible. This is a paradox. So axiom 2 fails here. I think Wittgenstein would agree the words are not defined according Logical positivism norm. LOL

REGARDS

igorkarlic
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Nice proof and Thanks for your efforts I wonder if you can make a video in your opinion what is the most Efficient way to read a maths book.

خالدالحماديالحمادي-به
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But sir empty set fi is a subset of every set so how S and fi are mutually independent ? pls answer sir

balachandar
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What I don't get is why would we even need to prove such an obvious thing. This is basically an axiom right?

Cataclism
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Nice
OR we can use m/n
m is no of favourable outcomes which is equal to zero
n is total no of possible outcomes
required probability = 0/n=0

mlTS
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sir i want to contact you, can i get your email ?

alijattjatt