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A Counter Intuitive Result About Sequences
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Hi,
In this video I'll be exploring an idea to do with sequences. Suppose we have a sequence of numbers which we call (a_n). Suppose further that (a_{kn}) converges to some number l for all k≥2 (l is independent of k). Does it necessarily follow that (a_n) converges to l? The answer may surprise you.
Follow me on Instagram: @jpimaths
And, as always, any comments, feedback or suggestions are welcomed!
Thanks.
In this video I'll be exploring an idea to do with sequences. Suppose we have a sequence of numbers which we call (a_n). Suppose further that (a_{kn}) converges to some number l for all k≥2 (l is independent of k). Does it necessarily follow that (a_n) converges to l? The answer may surprise you.
Follow me on Instagram: @jpimaths
And, as always, any comments, feedback or suggestions are welcomed!
Thanks.
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