Integration using Laplace Transforms #Shorts

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Комментарии
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Bro! Such a powerful concept explained in a tiny span of time! Now that’s efficiency!

useranonymous
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I do think that the sum is incorrect because in LT type 4, ÷ by t. The laplace has to be multiplied by infinity and S due to which the tan‐1(s) become infinite, which is π/2, and the second term remains same their is no exponential problem so it'll be 0 ?. The ans will be
π/2 — tan-1 (S)
And final ans to write it short will be
Cot-1 (S)

MYM
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try to make practical... others wise it's useless

RChandu-umee