Functions with a Two-Sided Inverse are Bijective

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One way to prove that a function is bijective is to find a two-sided inverse function. In this video, we explain why having a two-sided inverse means that a function is a bijection!

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Music: OcularNebula - The Lopez
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Nice explanation. Not studying maths anymore but like your proofs.

CB
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Thank you so much
But what if i have a relation wich contian phi how can i find the inverse relation

ahmadmhmd
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This video is closely related to my favorite example of a statement that requires the axiom of choice to prove. Whoever guesses it will be awarded one free internet.

EpicMathTime
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Do you have a video that explains the following quote I found “if a function has a right and left inverse, then they must be the same”. This boggles my mind!

MathCuriousity
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How is a two-sided inverse different from a normal inverse? Do you say a function g is a one-sided inverse (or just inverse) if g(f(x)) = x, but f(g(x)) != x?

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