e^Pi vs Pi^e : which is larger? (pi day battle)

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This is a short, animated visual proof demonstrating which of the values e^pi or pi^e is larger (where pi is the circle constant and e is Euler's constant) .

For two visual proofs of a more general version of this inequality, see
and

#math​ #inequality #manim​ #animation​ #theorem​ #pww​ #proofwithoutwords​ #visualproof​ #proof​ #iteachmath #calculus #mathshorts​ #mathvideo​ #mtbos​ #euler #pi #piday

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I understood all the steps as you went through them, but I would never think to put those steps together to answer this question.

liambohl
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Without a calculator...'First plot...' *grabs calculator*

lilylovecraft
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e^x >= x^e in every case while the only way it is equal is x = e

lavieag
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This is one of the most beautiful proofs I've ever seen.

yusufdenli
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You know I actually hadn’t wondered that

monkeyhook
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Fun fact: For any positive real number x, e^x > x^e. Except if x = e, then they're equal. Also, the only time the difference decreases is between 1 and e.

awesomelink
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How to draw an owl:
1. Draw a circle for the head
2. Draw the rest of the owl

timwildauer
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Another way :
Take the function f(x) = x^(1/x). Its derivative is x^(1/x) ((1-ln(x))/x²) so the function has a maximum on x = e
Therefore, e^(1/e) > π^(1/π)
Raising both sides to the πe power we get e^π > π^e

三点一四
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Another way would be to take the Ln of both sides, take the exponent out and use that if x<y then ln(x) < ln(y).

seppeswart
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Very elegant, BUT... what is the intuition that leads one to examine y = 1/x in the first place? And then why the area under it, and I suppose, why from e to pi? THAT is the spark many of us are missing.

ericpmoss
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Seems overcomplicated. Just start by proving x^y>y^x for all e<=x<y and then this falls out as a special case. The former follows from the fact that ln(x)/x is monotonic decreasing on x>e, which is obvious from its derivative. No need for integrals or looking at areas.

quintopia
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So for every number n>e, eⁿ>n^e

ozargaman
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Raise both to the power of 1/eπ it becomes a function of x^1/x which has its max value at e (can be found by finding the derivative of the function) so yes e^π is greater than π^e.

Looks like someone else in the comments did this too.

divyansh
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One other way to do it is to find derivative of x^(1/x) which will result the function been decreasing for x>e so, π^(1/π)<e^(1/e) and after interchanging powers, π^(e) <e^π...

smitshah
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Do not need to go so complex
Just draw graph of y=x to power 1/x, it is also called gaussian curve, its peak reaches as x=e, so since pi>e so e to power 1/e >pi to power 1/pi then after raising power e×pi both sides, we will get e to power pi> pi to power e.🎉

naitikjain
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That's cool and all, but you could also use your calculus skills to show that x^y < y^x whenever e <= y < x. So there is absolutely no reason to use pi here.

TheOneMaddin
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I just threw a wild guess that; since 2 < e < π (that is, π is greater, than e, and *_BOTH_* are greater, than 2); then, e^π should be larger, than π^e 😅.

PC_Simo
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I am so relieved i understood every bit of it. Thanks a billion to my calculus professor. Respect

rizwannazir
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Nice proof; but it still requires knowing that e < π .

By the way, for _any_ positive real number a ≠ e,
e^a > a^e

yurenchu
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Foarte elegantă problema și rezolvarea ei. Felicitări.

dragoscalin