One Divine Will And One Human Will, John 6:38

Jesus said in John 6:38, "For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.” The God who became a man came down from heaven. After coming down from heaven, he became a fully complete human son with a fully complete human nature and will. Therefore, Jesus could say that he came not to do his own will (his human will), but the Father’s (the Divine will).
The only distinctions of wills, minds, and consciousness began after God the Father's Holy Spirit descended upon the virgin to become a true man with a true human will. For God as God cannot have three God wills that could potentially disagree with each other without being a Tri-theistic God. That is why I am convinced that Oneness Theology is the only theological view that upholds the true deity of Christ while bringing harmony to all of the scriptures.
John 6:38 as being problematic for Trinitarians as there are no scriptures to justify God as God ever having more than one divine will throughout the Hebrew and Greek Scriptures. For if an alleged coequal God the Son could have a divine will which could potentially disagree with the Father’s, then God could not be called One God while possessing three God Minds and three God wills. Therefore Trinitarians cannot uphold true Monotheism while believing that God has three Personal Centers of Self Consciousness, with each Divine God Person having his own distinct Mind and Will.

[joejr]

This is so incredible brother Richie that I almost can't contain myself with the simplicity of who Jesus is

[jelayastewart]

This is amazing! Very well put together and very much biblical!!!

[roderickd.thornfoundationa]

Please keep my family and I in your holy apostolic prayers !!

[globalimpactministries]

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[MoparHP]

Hello Ritchie, I have seen your video of John 6:38. At John 6:38 (A) we have the verb καταβέβηκα “I have descended, ” which is a perfect tense, first person singular, active voice, and in the indicative mood. I understand that you argue that the subject of the verb καταβέβηκα at John 6:38 (A) is the Son, who spoke “through his human consciousness (as you say), ” but that the actual subject who actually performed the action of the verb καταβέβηκα—that is the action of “descending from heaven”—was “the Holy Spirit of God the Father, ” and not the Son (see minutes: 7:58 -8:11; 11:49-12:10). So according to your interpretation, the Son, as the referential identity at John 6:38 (A), participates in the action of the “speaking” of the verb καταβέβηκα “I have come down, ” but does not participate in the actual action of “descending” with the use of that same verb. According to your interpretation of John 6:38 (A), the referential identity and subject who actually descends and participates in the action of this perfect verb is “the Holy Spirit of God the Father.”

I know of no biblical examples anywhere, where someone in discourse spoke using a perfect tense verb, in the first person singular, in the active voice, and in the indicative mood, to include himself as the speaker of that verb, and where it is also the case that that same speaker is excluded from being the actual “doer” or “performer” or “the one involved” in the action of that very same verb.

The exceptions I see are in cases where the subject is explicitly excluded by a qualifying linguistic indicator, such as for example by adding a negative particle to say something as “I have not . . . ” and then describes the action of that perfect verb. There are also conditional uses of such verbs as in “if I have done . . .” and then continues to describe the action of that perfect verb, or even instances where someone quotes someone else using a perfect tense verb and where it may not be clear if the subject spoken about performed the actual action, or maybe even a use of this exact perfect verb in a form of a question, or maybe even in a prophetic sense, or metaphorical language, and these types of examples I can understand. One can even conceive of an instance where someone is deliberately lying and intentionally deceiving his listeners.

However, none of these situations apply to the discourse case of John 6:38 (A). I have never seen a biblical example supporting your interpretation of the perfect tense verb of John 6:38 (A) where a subject in discourse uses a perfect tense verb, in the first person singular, in the active voice, and in the indicative mood, to include himself as the speaker of that verb, and where it happens to be the case that that same speaker is excluded from being the actual “doer” or “performer, ” or excluded from being “involved” in the action of that very same verb as you are arguing for the verb καταβέβηκα at John 6:38 (A). So, to my knowledge, the manner that you have interpreted the perfect tense verb καταβέβηκα at John 6:38 (A) is not found anywhere in the NT or the LXX.

QUESTION:

Can you prove to me, and show me at least one biblical example from the Greek of the NT or the LXX where someone speaking in a discourse setting, spoke using a perfect tense verb, in the first person singular, in the active voice, and in the indicative mood, to include himself as the speaker of that verb, and where it is also the case that that same speaker is excluded from being the actual “doer” or “performer, ” or excluded from being actually “involved” in the action of that very same verb as you argue is the case with the verb καταβέβηκα at John 6:38 (A)?

Please don’t change the subject, please just answer my question. Either tell me plainly “yes, ” and show me the example so that I can review it, or, “no” and this would mean that there are no examples to support your interpretation of the the perfect tense verb καταβέβηκα at John 6:38.

Luis C. Reyes

[roderickd.thornfoundationa]

Were you aware that in the Original, Biblical Language of Paleo-Hebrew ; in Galilean Aramaic ( The Language of our Lord, and Saviour JESUS CHRIST, and the Apostles/Disciples ) ; and Greek, the DIVINE, Most HOLY Words of JESUS CHRIST in St. Matthew 14:27 ; St. Mark 6:50 ; St. John 6:20, Jesus Christ actually use the DIVINE/Most HALLOWED SHEM/NAME ( Exodus 3:14-15, 33:19 ; Mal. 3:6 ; St. Matthew 24:5 ; St. Mark 13:6 ; St Luke 21:8 ; St. John 1:12, 3:18, 5:17, 43, 8:24, 58, 10:30, 12:28, 13:19, 14: 9, 17:5, 11, Eph. 1:21 ; Phil . 2:9-11 ; Heb. 1:3, 4, 8 13:8 ; Revelation 3:12, 14:1, 19:12, 13,16, 22:4), and truthfully, and rightfully applied it unto HIMSELF, thus PROVING, and FULFILLING His own DIVINE, Most HOLY Promise in Exodus. 33:19 ; St. John 1:18, 12:28, 16:25 ; 17:6, 26

Please do a thorough (video) Biblical Study/Sermon confirming this. Thank you in advance, Shabbat Shalom, and may the good Lord God bless !!!!

[ziyahacioglu]

i want to read yours articles in turkish language :)

[miketaylor]

Sounds like you got it all figured out but it made absolutely no sense lol